5.1 -Disorders of the Blood

Summary

HEMATOLOGY AND ONCOLOGY: ANEMIA IN THE PEDIATRIC POPULATION

COMPARISON OF ANEMIAS OF INADEQUATE PRODUCTION (INEFFECTIVE ERYTHROPOIESIS)

FeatureIron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)Megaloblastic AnemiaAnemia of Chronic Disease (ACD)Anemia of Renal DiseasePhysiologic Anemia of Infancy
PathogenesisDepleted iron stores leading to impaired hemoglobin synthesis.Impaired DNA synthesis; maturational asynchrony between nucleus and cytoplasm.Immune activation/cytokines (IL-1) leading to decreased RBC lifespan and iron sequestration.Decreased erythropoietin (EPO) production by diseased kidneys.Increased blood O2 at birth suppresses EPO production until tissue needs exceed delivery.
MCVMicrocytic (Low)Macrocytic (High)Normocytic (usually)NormocyticNormocytic
Reticulocyte CountLowLowNormal or LowNormal or LowLow (initially)
Key Lab Findings↓ Ferritin, ↑ TIBC, ↑ RDW, ↓ Serum Iron.↓ Folate or ↓ B12; hypersegmented neutrophils on PBS.↓ Serum iron, Low/Normal TIBC, ↑ Ferritin.Hb declines when GFR <43 mL/min/1.73m².Hb drop occurs at 6-8 weeks in term infants.
Unique FindingPica, milk-heavy diet.Goat's milk diet (folate deficient).Ongoing infection, inflammation, or malignancy.Associated with CKD stages.Normal physiologic transition; no treatment needed.

COMPARISON OF PURE RED CELL APLASIAS & PANCYTOPENIAS

FeatureDiamond-Blackfan Anemia (DBA)Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood (TEC)Fanconi Anemia (FA)Dyskeratosis Congenita (DC)Aplastic Anemia (Acquired)
TypeCongenital Pure Red Cell Aplasia.Acquired Pure Red Cell Aplasia.Inherited Bone Marrow Failure (Pancytopenia).Inherited Bone Marrow Failure (Pancytopenia).Acquired Bone Marrow Failure (Pancytopenia).
Age of Onset90% cases <6 months.90% cases >1 year.Early childhood.Early childhood/Variable.Any age (often teenagers).
Physical FindingsSnub nose, triphalangeal thumbs, snub nose.Usually none (healthy child).Short stature, radial/thumb anomalies, hyperpigmentation.Triad: Reticulated skin, dystrophic nails, oral leukoplakia.No skeletal anomalies; petechiae/bruising.
Erythrocyte ADAIncreased.Normal.Variable.Variable.Normal.
TreatmentCorticosteroids or HSCT.Observation (recovery 2 mos).Supportive/HSCT.Supportive/HSCT.ATG/Cyclosporine or HSCT (Matched Sib).

COMPARISON OF HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (INCREASED DESTRUCTION)

FeatureHereditary Spherocytosis (HS)G6PD DeficiencyThalassemia (Alpha/Beta)Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)
DefectMembrane Protein (Ankyrin, Spectrin, Band 3).Enzyme Deficiency (X-linked).Globin Chain Synthesis (Alpha or Beta).Immune-mediated destruction (antibodies/complement).
TriggersNone (trapped in splenic sinusoids).Oxidative stress (drugs, infection, fava beans).Genetic (inherited mutations).Idiopathic, drugs, or infections.
Morphology (PBS)Microspherocytes; no central pallor.Nucleated/Fragmented RBCs; Heinz bodies/Bite cells.Target cells, hypochromia, microcytosis.Microspherocytes (similar to HS).
Confirmatory TestOsmotic Fragility Test (OFT).G6PD Assay.Hemoglobin Electrophoresis.Direct Coombs Test (Hallmark).
Unique SignsJaundice, splenomegaly, family hx of gallstones.Hemoglobinuria (dark urine) after stress.Frontal bossing, maxillary overgrowth (Chipmunk facies).Secondary to underlying disease (Lupus, etc.).

GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND EVALUATION BASICS

  • In Anemia, the condition is defined as a reduction of hemoglobin concentration or RBC volume below the range for healthy persons of the same age and sex.
  • Physiologic Adjustments to Anemia include increased cardiac output, augmented oxygen extraction, shunting of blood to vital organs, and increased concentration of 2,3-DPG.
  • The Oxygen-Dissociation Curve in anemia demonstrates a "Shift to the Right," which reduces hemoglobin's affinity for O2 to facilitate better tissue transfer.
  • A Limited Hematologic Evaluation for anemic children consists of a CBC with red cell indices, platelet count, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood smear (PBS) examination.
  • In the History of an Anemic Child, diet is a "red flag" if a 1-year-old is exclusively consuming cow's milk.
  • Regarding Drug-Induced Anemia, ASA/NSAIDs may cause GI bleeding, while Chloramphenicol and TMP-SMX are known to cause marrow injury.
  • In Physical Examination for Anemia, the presence of tachycardia, tachypnea, and hemic murmurs signifies severe anemia or acute blood loss.
  • The MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) indicates average RBC size; the lower limit for children 2-10 years is calculated as 70 + age in years.
  • The MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) represents the amount of hemoglobin relative to the size of the cell; it is uniquely increased in Hereditary Spherocytosis.
  • A Normal Peripheral Blood Smear shows RBCs with a central pallor occupying no more than 1/3 of the cell, roughly the size of a lymphocyte nucleus.
  • Reticulocyte Count provides crucial information on the rate of red cell production; a low count indicates decreased production, while a high count indicates loss or destruction.
  • The Reticulocyte Index (Corrected Retic) must be calculated in anemic patients using the formula: Observed Retic % x (Patient Hct / 0.45).
  • The Absolute Reticulocyte Count normal range is 40,000 to 100,000; the formula is RBC (x10¹²) x (Retic # / 1000 RBC) x 1000.

INADEQUATE PRODUCTION ANEMIAS

  • In Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA), anemia in term infants solely due to dietary causes usually occurs between 9-24 months of age.
  • Regarding Neonatal Iron Stores, term infants are rarely iron deficient during the first 4-6 months because iron is recycled from high fetal Hgb; stores are depleted sooner in premature infants.
  • The Stages of Iron Deficiency begin with "Pre-latent" (low ferritin only), then "Latent" (low serum iron, high TIBC), and finally "IDA" (low Hb and MCV).
  • Iron Deficiency Anemia labs typically show microcytic hypochromic cells, increased RDW, high TIBC, and low ferritin; iron studies are often not required if the history is classic.
  • Treatment of IDA involves 3-6 mg/kg/day of elemental iron; Hgb should increase by 1 g/dL within one month of therapy.
  • Once Hgb normalizes in Iron Deficiency Anemia, iron therapy must continue for an additional 2-3 months to replete tissue stores.
  • Megaloblastic Anemia in children who drink goat's milk is typically caused by folate (B9) deficiency.
  • In Anemia of Chronic Disease, the primary mechanism is functional iron deficiency where iron is "locked" in macrophages by cytokines, leading to low serum iron but elevated/normal ferritin.
  • Physiologic Anemia of Infancy is a normal process occurring in the first week of life and persisting for 6-8 weeks in term infants, requiring only observation.

BONE MARROW FAILURE SYNDROMES (PANCYTOPENIAS)

  • Severe Aplastic Anemia (SAA) Criteria: Bone marrow cellularity <25% PLUS two of the following: ANC <500, Platelets <20,000, or Absolute Retic <20 x 10⁹/L.
  • The treatment of choice for Acquired Aplastic Anemia with a matched sibling donor is a Bone Marrow Transplant, which carries a >85% survival rate.
  • In Fanconi Anemia, patients often present with short stature, thumb anomalies (absent/triphalangeal), and radial malformations.
  • Dyskeratosis Congenita is distinguished by a classic triad of clinical findings: reticulated skin hyperpigmentation, dystrophic nails, and oral leukoplakia.
  • Pearson Syndrome is a rare mitochondrial disorder characterized by macrocytic anemia, exocrine pancreatic dysfunction, and failure to thrive.

HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (INCREASED DESTRUCTION)

  • Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS) is the most common red cell membrane defect and is usually inherited in an Autosomal Dominant (70-80%) fashion.
  • The Confirmatory Test for Hereditary Spherocytosis is the Osmotic Fragility Test (OFT); the definitive treatment for severe cases is a splenectomy after age 7.
  • Regarding G6PD Deficiency, it is the most common enzymatic defect among Filipinos (3.9% incidence) and follows an X-linked inheritance pattern.
  • In G6PD Deficiency, hemolysis is "episodic" and triggered by oxidative stress, such as infections, fava beans, or drugs like Nitrofurantoin and Antimalarials.
  • The Thalassemias are characterized by an imbalance in globin chain production (alpha or beta), leading to precipitation of excess chains that damage the RBC membrane.
  • In Beta-Thalassemia Major, patients develop "chipmunk facies" due to bone marrow expansion and extramedullary hematopoiesis.
  • The Most Important Complication of Thalassemia treatment is iron overload (hemosiderosis) due to chronic transfusions, necessitating iron chelation therapy.
  • The Hallmark of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) is a positive Direct Coombs Test.
  • In Wilson Disease, hemolytic anemia can occur due to the toxic effects of copper on the RBC membrane, often associated with Kayser-Fleischer rings.

DISTINGUISHING ENTITIES: EXAM DIFFERENTIATORS

  1. IDA vs. Thalassemia Trait: Both are microcytic, but Iron Deficiency Anemia has a high RDW and low ferritin, whereas Thalassemia has a normal/low RDW, high RBC count, and normal ferritin.
  2. DBA vs. TEC: Diamond-Blackfan Anemia presents at <6 months with congenital anomalies and high ADA; TEC presents at >1 year in a previously healthy child with normal ADA.
  3. HS vs. AIHA: Both show spherocytes on PBS, but Hereditary Spherocytosis has a positive family history and positive OFT, whereas AIHA has a positive Direct Coombs test.
  4. Aplastic Anemia vs. Leukemia: Both present with pancytopenia, but Aplastic Anemia shows a "fatty," hypocellular marrow, while Leukemia shows a "packed" marrow with blasts.
  5. Fanconi Anemia vs. SAA: Fanconi Anemia is an inherited pancytopenia with physical defects (thumbs, height); Acquired Aplastic Anemia typically has a preceding trigger (drugs/virus) and no skeletal anomalies.
  6. G6PD vs. HS: G6PD Deficiency causes acute, episodic hemolysis with "bite cells" and dark urine; Hereditary Spherocytosis causes chronic hemolysis with constant splenomegaly and microspherocytes.
  7. IDA vs. ACD: Iron Deficiency Anemia has high TIBC and low Ferritin; Anemia of Chronic Disease has low/normal TIBC and high/normal Ferritin.
  8. Megaloblastic vs. IDA: Megaloblastic Anemia is macrocytic (High MCV); IDA is microcytic (Low MCV).
  9. Folate vs. B12 Deficiency: Both are megaloblastic, but Vitamin B12 deficiency is more likely to have neurological symptoms (though both were grouped as Megaloblastic in common goats' milk context).
  10. Physiologic Anemia vs. Pathologic Anemia (Neonate): Physiologic Anemia occurs at 6-8 weeks and is asymptomatic; anemia in the first week of life is usually pathologic (blood loss/hemolysis).
  11. Spherocytes vs. Microspherocytes: Found in both HS and AIHA; they represent RBCs that have lost surface area, making them fragile and lacking central pallor.
  12. Target Cells: These are the hallmark PBS finding for Hemoglobinopathies like Thalassemia and Hgb C.
  13. MCHC in HS: A High MCHC (>36) is a highly specific clue for Hereditary Spherocytosis.
  14. Mentzer Index Hint (not explicitly in text but implied): In Thalassemia, the RBC count is often high despite low Hgb, whereas in IDA, the RBC count is typically low.
  15. TEC Recovery: In the recovery phase of Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood, the MCV may temporarily increase because of the sudden influx of large reticulocytes.
  16. Drug Triggers (Marrow): Chloramphenicol causes aplastic anemia (marrow failure), whereas Nitrofurantoin causes hemolysis only in G6PD deficient patients.
  17. Hypersegmentation: If you see Neutrophils with >5 lobes on PBS, the diagnosis is Megaloblastic Anemia.
  18. Basophilic Stippling: Though not highlighted as a "hallmark" in this specific text, it is associated with Lead Poisoning and Thalassemia.
  19. Splenectomy Timing: In HS and Thalassemia, splenectomy is generally deferred until after age 6-7 to reduce the risk of post-splenectomy sepsis.
  20. Goat Milk Anemia: High yield exam fact: Goat's Milk = Folate deficiency = Megaloblastic Anemia.
  21. X-Linked Anemias: G6PD Deficiency is X-linked; therefore, it is significantly more common in males.

QA

HEMATOLOGY AND ONCOLOGY: ANEMIA IN THE PEDIATRIC POPULATION

CountQA
1Describe the pathogenesis of Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA).Depleted iron stores.
Leads to impaired hemoglobin synthesis.
2Describe the pathogenesis of Megaloblastic Anemia.Impaired DNA synthesis.
Maturational asynchrony between nucleus and cytoplasm.
3Describe the pathogenesis of Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD).Immune activation/cytokines.
Leads to decreased Red Blood Cell lifespan and iron sequestration.
4Describe the pathogenesis of Anemia of Renal Disease.Decreased Erythropoietin production.
Caused by diseased kidneys.
5Describe the pathogenesis of Physiologic Anemia of Infancy.Suppressed Erythropoietin production.
Increased blood Oxygen at birth suppresses production until tissue needs exceed delivery.
6What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Iron Deficiency Anemia?Microcytic.
The Mean Corpuscular Volume is Low.
7What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Megaloblastic Anemia?Macrocytic.
The Mean Corpuscular Volume is High.
8What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Anemia of Chronic Disease?Normocytic.
Usually presents with a normal cell volume.
9What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Anemia of Renal Disease?Normocytic.
Normal cell volume is typical.
10What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Physiologic Anemia of Infancy?Normocytic.
Presents with normal cell volume.
11Describe the reticulocyte count in Iron Deficiency Anemia.Low.
Reflects inadequate production.
12Describe the reticulocyte count in Megaloblastic Anemia.Low.
Reflects inadequate production.
13Describe the reticulocyte count in Anemia of Chronic Disease.Normal or Low.
Reflects impaired erythrocyte production.
14Describe the reticulocyte count in Anemia of Renal Disease.Normal or Low.
Reflects decreased Erythropoietin signal.
15Describe the reticulocyte count in Physiologic Anemia of Infancy.Low initially.
Occurs as Erythropoietin is suppressed.
16List the key laboratory findings (4) for Iron Deficiency Anemia.↓Ferritin, ↑TIBC, ↑RDW, ↓Serum Iron.
17What are the key laboratory/smear findings (2) for Megaloblastic Anemia?↓Folate/B12, Hypersegmented Neutrophils.
Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen on peripheral blood smear.
18List the key laboratory findings (3) for Anemia of Chronic Disease.↓Serum Iron, ↑Ferritin.
TIBC is Low or Normal.
19What laboratory threshold defines Anemia of Renal Disease in terms of GFR?GFR <43 mL/min/1.73m².
Hemoglobin declines when GFR drops below this point.
20When does the Hemoglobin drop occur in Physiologic Anemia of Infancy for term infants?6-8 weeks.
This is the typical timing for term infants.
21Name the unique dietary finding associated with Iron Deficiency Anemia.Milk-heavy diet.
Pica may also be present.
22Name the unique dietary finding associated with Megaloblastic Anemia.Goat's milk diet.
This leads to folate deficiency.
23What are the unique clinical contexts for Anemia of Chronic Disease?Ongoing infection or inflammation.
Also associated with malignancy.
24What is the clinical context for Anemia of Renal Disease?Chronic Kidney Disease.
Associated with various CKD stages.
25What is the unique management for Physiologic Anemia of Infancy?No treatment needed.
This is a normal physiologic transition.

PURE RED CELL APLASIAS & PANCYTOPENIAS

CountQA
26Define the type of disorder for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia (DBA).Congenital Pure Red Cell Aplasia.
27Define the type of disorder for Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood (TEC).Acquired Pure Red Cell Aplasia.
28Define the type of disorder for Fanconi Anemia (FA).Inherited Bone Marrow Failure.
Presents as pancytopenia.
29Define the type of disorder for Dyskeratosis Congenita (DC).Inherited Bone Marrow Failure.
Presents as pancytopenia.
30Define the type of disorder for Aplastic Anemia (Acquired).Acquired Bone Marrow Failure.
Presents as pancytopenia.
31What is the age of onset for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia?< 6 months.
90% of cases present by this age.
32What is the age of onset for Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood?> 1 year.
90% of cases present after this age.
33What is the typical age of onset for Fanconi Anemia?Early childhood.
34What is the typical age of onset for Dyskeratosis Congenita?Early childhood or Variable.
35What is the typical age of onset for Aplastic Anemia (Acquired)?Any age.
Often affects teenagers.
36List the physical findings (3) for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia.Snub nose, triphalangeal thumbs.
May also include short stature.
37Describe the physical appearance of a child with Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood.Usually none (healthy child).
38List the physical findings (3) for Fanconi Anemia.Short stature, radial/thumb anomalies.
Hyperpigmentation is also common.
39Enumerate the clinical triad for Dyskeratosis Congenita.Reticulated skin, dystrophic nails, oral leukoplakia.
40What are the physical signs of Aplastic Anemia (Acquired)?Petechiae and bruising.
No skeletal anomalies are present.
41Describe the Erythrocyte Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) level in Diamond-Blackfan Anemia.Increased.
42Describe the Erythrocyte Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) level in Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood.Normal.
43What are the treatment options (2) for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia?Corticosteroids or HSCT.
44What is the treatment for Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood?Observation.
Recovery usually occurs within 2 months.
45What is the definitive treatment for Fanconi Anemia?Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant.
Supportive care is also used.
46What are the primary treatments (2) for Dyskeratosis Congenita?Supportive care or HSCT.
47What are the treatment options (2) for Acquired Aplastic Anemia?ATG/Cyclosporine or HSCT.
HSCT is preferred if a matched sibling is available.

HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (INCREASED DESTRUCTION)

CountQA
48What is the underlying defect in Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS)?Membrane Protein defect.
Involves Ankyrin, Spectrin, or Band 3.
49What is the underlying defect in G6PD Deficiency?Enzyme Deficiency.
This is an X-linked condition.
50What is the underlying defect in Thalassemia (Alpha/Beta)?Globin Chain Synthesis defect.
Affects Alpha or Beta chains.
51What is the underlying defect in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)?Immune-mediated destruction.
Involves antibodies or complement.
52List the triggers (3) for hemolysis in G6PD Deficiency.Oxidative stress, drugs, fava beans.
Infections also serve as triggers.
53What are the triggers for Hereditary Spherocytosis hemolysis?None.
RBCs are trapped in splenic sinusoids regardless of triggers.
54Describe the morphology of Hereditary Spherocytosis on a peripheral blood smear.Microspherocytes.
They show no central pallor.
55Describe the key peripheral blood smear findings (3) for G6PD Deficiency.Heinz bodies, Bite cells.
Also fragmented Red Blood Cells.
56List the morphology findings (3) for Thalassemia.Target cells, hypochromia, microcytosis.
57Describe the morphology of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia on a blood smear.Microspherocytes.
This morphology is similar to Hereditary Spherocytosis.
58What is the confirmatory test for Hereditary Spherocytosis?Osmotic Fragility Test (OFT).
59What is the confirmatory test for Thalassemia?Hemoglobin Electrophoresis.
60What is the hallmark confirmatory test for Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia?Direct Coombs Test.
61List the unique signs (3) of Hereditary Spherocytosis.Jaundice, splenomegaly, gallstones.
Wait for family history of gallstones.
62What is a unique sign of G6PD Deficiency after oxidative stress?Hemoglobinuria.
Often described as dark urine.
63List the unique physical findings (2) of Beta-Thalassemia Major.Frontal bossing, maxillary overgrowth.
Known as "Chipmunk facies".

GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND EVALUATION BASICS

CountQA
64Define Anemia in the pediatric population.Low Hemoglobin or RBC volume.
Reduction below the range for healthy persons of the same age and sex.
65Enumerate the Physiologic Adjustments to Anemia (4).↑Cardiac Output, ↑Oxygen Extraction, Shunting, ↑2,3-DPG.
66How does the Oxygen-Dissociation Curve change in anemia?Shift to the Right.
Reduces affinity for Oxygen to facilitate tissue transfer.
67List the components of a Limited Hematologic Evaluation (4).CBC, Platelet count, Reticulocyte count, PBS.
CBC should include red cell indices.
68What is a dietary "red flag" in the History of an Anemic Child at 1 year of age?Exclusive cow's milk consumption.
69Which drugs cause Drug-Induced Anemia via GI bleeding?Aspirin and NSAIDs.
70Which drugs are known to cause Drug-Induced Anemia via marrow injury?Chloramphenicol and TMP-SMX.
71What do tachycardia and hemic murmurs signify during a Physical Examination for Anemia?Severe anemia.
Or acute blood loss.
72What is the formula for the lower limit of MCV in children aged 2-10 years?70 + age in years.
73Which condition is Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) uniquely increased in?Hereditary Spherocytosis.
74Describe the appearance of a Normal Peripheral Blood Smear RBC.Central pallor ≤ 1/3 cell.
Roughly the size of a lymphocyte nucleus.
75What does a high Reticulocyte Count indicate?Loss or destruction.
Indicates the marrow is responding.
76Provide the formula for the Reticulocyte Index (Corrected Retic).Observed Retic % x (Patient Hct / 0.45).
77What is the formula for the Absolute Reticulocyte Count?RBC x (Retic # / 1000 RBC) x 1000.
78What is the normal range for Absolute Reticulocyte Count?40,000 to 100,000.

INADEQUATE PRODUCTION ANEMIAS (SUPPLEMENTAL)

CountQA
79When does dietary Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) usually occur in term infants?9-24 months of age.
80Why are term infants rarely iron deficient in the first 4-6 months regarding Neonatal Iron Stores?Iron is recycled.
Recycled from high fetal Hemoglobin at birth.
81Enumerate the three Stages of Iron Deficiency.1) Pre-latent,
2) Latent,
3) Iron Deficiency Anemia.
82What is the expected response to Treatment of IDA after one month?↑ 1 g/dL of Hemoglobin.
83How long should therapy continue after Hemoglobin normalizes in Iron Deficiency Anemia?2-3 months.
Required to replete tissue stores.
84What is the primary mechanism of Anemia of Chronic Disease?Functional iron deficiency.
Iron is "locked" in macrophages by cytokines.

BONE MARROW FAILURE SYNDROMES (SUPPLEMENTAL)

CountQA
85Enumerate the Severe Aplastic Anemia (SAA) Criteria (Cellularity + 2 lab findings).Marrow <25% PLUS:
ANC <500, Platelets <20k, or Retics <20k.
86What is the survival rate for Acquired Aplastic Anemia treated with Matched Sibling HSCT?> 85% survival rate.
87Describe the thumb abnormalities seen in Fanconi Anemia.Absent or Triphalangeal.
88List the characteristics (3) of Pearson Syndrome.Macrocytic anemia, Pancreatic dysfunction, Failure to thrive.

HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (SUPPLEMENTAL)

CountQA
89What is the inheritance pattern and frequency of Hereditary Spherocytosis?Autosomal Dominant (70-80%).
Most common red cell membrane defect.
90What is the definitive treatment for severe Hereditary Spherocytosis and its timing?Splenectomy after age 7.
91What is the incidence and inheritance of G6PD Deficiency in Filipinos?3.9% incidence; X-linked.
92What happens to excess globin chains in Thalassemias?Precipitation.
Damages the Red Blood Cell membrane.
93Why does Beta-Thalassemia Major cause bone marrow expansion?Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
Leads to chipmunk facies.
94What is the most important complication of Thalassemia treatment?Iron overload (hemosiderosis).
Due to chronic transfusions.
95What causes hemolytic anemia in Wilson Disease?Toxic effects of copper.
Copper poisons the RBC membrane.

DISTINGUISHING ENTITIES: EXAM DIFFERENTIATORS

CountQA
96Compare IDA vs Thalassemia Trait regarding RDW and Ferritin.IDA: High RDW, Low Ferritin.
Thalassemia: Normal RDW, Normal Ferritin.
97Compare DBA vs TEC regarding age and ADA.DBA: <6 months, High ADA.
TEC: >1 year, Normal ADA.
98Compare HS vs AIHA regarding family history and Direct Coombs.HS: Positive Family Hx, Negative Coombs.
AIHA: Negative Family Hx, Positive Coombs.
99Compare Aplastic Anemia vs Leukemia marrow findings.Aplastic Anemia: Fatty, hypocellular.
Leukemia: Packed with blasts.
100Compare Fanconi Anemia vs SAA physical defects.Fanconi: Skeletal defects (thumbs/height).
SAA: No skeletal anomalies.
101Compare G6PD vs HS in terms of hemolysis pattern.G6PD: Acute, episodic (bite cells).
HS: Chronic (spherocytes).
102Compare Vitamin B12 vs Folate Deficiency.B12: Neurological symptoms present.
Folate: Neurological symptoms absent.
103Compare Physiologic vs Pathologic Neonatal Anemia timing.Physiologic: 6-8 weeks.
Pathologic: 1st week of life.
104What is the PBS hallmark for Hemoglobinopathies like Thalassemia?Target cells.
105What MCHC value is a specific clue for Hereditary Spherocytosis?High MCHC (>36).
106Why does TEC show a temporary MCV increase during recovery?Influx of large reticulocytes.
107Contrast Chloramphenicol vs Nitrofurantoin toxicity.Chloramphenicol: Marrow failure.
Nitrofurantoin: Hemolysis in G6PD.
108What is the diagnostic significance of Neutrophils with >5 lobes on PBS?Megaloblastic Anemia.
Known as hypersegmentation.
109What are the two main associations for Basophilic Stippling?Lead Poisoning and Thalassemia.
110Why is G6PD Deficiency more common in males?X-linked inheritance.

5.2 -Disorders of the Blood pt 2

Summary

text

HEMOSTASIS AND BLEEDING DISORDERS

TopicFeatureDetails
HemostasisDefinitionAn active process that clots blood at injury sites while limiting clot size; prevents blood loss and maintaining blood fluidity.
HemostasisComponentsDepends on the interaction between Blood Vessels (Endothelium), Platelets, and Clotting Factors.
Primary HemostasisMechanismInvolves platelet plug formation; defects lead to mucosal/superficial bleeding.
Secondary HemostasisMechanismInvolves the coagulation cascade and fibrin meshwork formation; defects lead to deep tissue bleeding.

THE COAGULATION CASCADE & SCREENING

  • Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) measures the Intrinsic Pathway (Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII) and the Common Pathway (I, II, V, X).
  • Prothrombin Time (PT) measures the Extrinsic Pathway (Factor VII) and the Common Pathway (I, II, V, X).
  • PTT Prolongation with Bleeding usually indicates a deficiency in Factors VIII, IX, or XI.
  • PTT Prolongation without Bleeding suggests a deficiency in Factor XII, Prekallikrein (PreK), or High Molecular Weight Kinogen (HMWK).
  • Isolated Prolonged PT specifically suggests a Factor VII deficiency.
  • The Common Pathway involves Factors X, V, II (Prothrombin), and I (Fibrinogen); Factor Xa activates prothrombin to thrombin.
  • Factor XIII is required to crosslink and stabilize the Fibrin Clot; it is NOT measured by standard PT or PTT.
  • Vitamin K Dependent Factors include Factors II, VII, IX, and X (Mnemonic: 1972).

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY LAB SCREEN

Lab FindingPotential Diagnosis
↑ PT, Normal PTT/PltFactor VII deficiency, Early liver disease, Vitamin K deficiency, Warfarin use.
↑ PTT, Normal PT/PltHemophilia (A or B), Factor XI or XII deficiency, von Willebrand Disease (VWD), PTT inhibitor.
↑ PT, ↑ PTT, Normal PltVitamin K deficiency, Liver disease, Massive transfusion, Oral anticoagulants, Common pathway deficiency (II, V, X, I).
↑ PT, ↑ PTT, ↓ PlateletDIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) or Severe liver dysfunction.
Normal PT, Normal PTT, ↓ PlateletITP (Immune Thrombocytopenia), Infection, Bone marrow failure, WAS, BSS.
All Labs NormalVWD (Mild), Platelet function disorders, Factor XIII deficiency, Vitamin C deficiency, Collagen disorders.

CLINICAL EVALUATION OF BLEEDING

  • Petechiae are skin bleeds < 2 mm in size, usually signifying low platelet counts.
  • Purpura are skin bleeds between 2 mm and 1 cm.
  • Ecchymoses (bruises) are skin bleeds > 1 cm.
  • Hematomas are bleeds > 1 cm that usually involve deep subcutaneous tissue.
  • Mucosal Bleeding (Epistaxis, Menorrhagia, Petechiae) is the clinical phenotype of Platelet/Primary Hemostasis disorders.
  • Deep Tissue Bleeding (Hemarthrosis, Hematoma, Delayed surgical bleeding) is the clinical phenotype of Coagulation Factor/Secondary Hemostasis disorders.

HEMOPHILIA (A & B)

FeatureHemophilia AHemophilia B
DeficiencyFactor VIIIFactor IX
FrequencyMost Common (80-85%)Less Common (15-20%)
InheritanceX-linked recessiveX-linked recessive
Hallmark PEHemarthrosis (Joint bleeding)Hemarthrosis (Joint bleeding)
Screening Labs↑ PTT, Normal PT, Normal Platelets↑ PTT, Normal PT, Normal Platelets
Definitive TestFactor VIII Assay (VWF is normal)Factor IX Assay
  • Hemophilia Severity is classified by factor activity: Severe (< 1%) involves spontaneous bleeds; Moderate (1-5%) involves bleeds with mild trauma; Mild (5-40%) involves bleeds only with major trauma/surgery.
  • Hemarthrosis in Hemophilia most commonly occurs in hinged joints: ankle, knees, and elbows.
  • Mixing Study distinguishes factor deficiency from inhibitors; if the PTT corrects with normal plasma, it indicates a Factor Deficiency.
  • Hemophilia A Treatment Dosage: 1 unit/kg of Factor VIII raises plasma levels by 2% (2 IU/dl); the half-life is 8-12 hours.
  • Hemophilia B Treatment Dosage: 1 unit/kg of Factor IX raises plasma levels by 1% (1 IU/dl); the half-life is 18-24 hours.
  • Management Principle: For suspected life-threatening bleeds (e.g., ICH), treat first (Even IF IN DOUBT) before performing diagnostic tests.
  • Supportive Care (RICE): Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation are standard for acute bleeding episodes.
  • Hemophilia Precautions: Patients must avoid IM injections, aspirin, and NSAIDs.

VON WILLEBRAND DISEASE (VWD)

  • Von Willebrand Disease (VWD) is the most common inherited bleeding disorder (1-3% of population).
  • Von Willebrand Factor (VWF) serves two roles: it glues platelets to damaged endothelium and protects Factor VIII from degradation.
  • Menorrhagia (heavy menses) is one of the most important and frequent complications of VWD in women.
  • Blood Type O individuals normally have lower VWF levels, which must be considered during diagnosis.
  • VWD Type 1 is a partial quantitative deficiency of VWF and is the most common type; treated with Desmopressin.
  • VWD Type 2 involves a qualitative/dysfunctional VWF.
  • VWD Type 3 is the total absence of VWF; clinically severe and presents with low Factor VIII levels.
  • VWF Assay is the definitive test for diagnosis.

IMMUNE THROMBOCYTOPENIA (ITP)

  • Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children.
  • ITP Pathogenesis involves autoantibodies (IgG) against platelet surface glycoproteins (GP IIb/IIIa or GP Ib/IX), leading to splenic destruction.
  • Clinical Presentation of ITP is an abrupt onset of petechiae/bruising in an otherwise healthy/well child (toddler/school age).
  • ITP History often includes a viral infection or immunization 1-2 weeks prior to symptoms.
  • Physical Exam in ITP should be negative for splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy; presence of these "red flags" suggests leukemia or other causes.
  • ITP Diagnosis is largely a diagnosis of exclusion; CBC shows isolated thrombocytopenia (< 100 x 10⁹/L) with normal to large platelets.
  • Bone Marrow Examination is not required for typical ITP but is used to rule out other causes if features are atypical or if steroids fail.
  • ITP Management: Most cases (80%) resolve spontaneously within 3-6 months; observation is preferred for mild bleeding.
  • Acute ITP Pharmacotherapy: If treatment is needed, short-course corticosteroids, IVIG, or Anti-D are used.
  • Splenectomy is reserved for severe persistent or chronic ITP cases.

OTHER HEMOSTATIC DISORDERS

  • Thrombosis in Children is rare compared to adults and usually secondary to critically ill states, cancer, or estrogen use.
  • Late Vitamin K Deficiency occurs after the neonatal period, often in breastfed infants or those with malabsorption/liver disease.
  • DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is a thrombotic microangiopathy causing consumption of clotting factors and platelets.
  • DIC Diagnosis shows prolonged PT, prolonged PTT, and low Platelets (all deranged).
  • DIC Treatment: The priority is treating the underlying trigger (infection/malignancy) and correcting shock/acidosis.
  • Tranexamic Acid is an antifibrinolytic used to manage mucosal bleeding (epistaxis, oral bleeds) in various disorders.

COMPARISON AND DIFFERENTIATION FOR EXAMS

  • ITP vs. Leukemia: ITP presents in a well-appearing child with isolated low platelets; Leukemia presents with an unwell child, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatosplenomegaly.
  • Hemophilia vs. VWD: Hemophilia presents with deep tissue bleeds (hemarthrosis) and is X-linked (males); VWD presents with mucosal bleeds (menorrhagia/epistaxis) and affects both sexes.
  • Hemophilia A vs. Hemophilia B: Indistinguishable by symptoms; Hemophilia A is Factor VIII deficiency and common; Hemophilia B is Factor IX deficiency and less common.
  • Primary vs. Secondary Hemostasis: Primary (Platelets) causes immediate bleeding/petechiae; Secondary (Factors) causes delayed/deep bleeding and large hematomas.
  • PT vs. PTT: PT is the best screen for Factor VII and Warfarin monitoring; PTT is the best screen for the intrinsic pathway (8, 9, 11, 12) and Heparin monitoring.
  • VWD vs. Hemophilia A Lab Check: Both can show low Factor VIII, but VWD also has low VWF levels, whereas Hemophilia A has normal VWF.
  • ITP Platelet Size: In ITP, platelets are normal to large; small platelets may suggest Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS).
  • Vitamin K Deficiency vs. Liver Disease: Both prolong PT/PTT; Vitamin K deficiency usually responds to Vitamin K administration, while Liver disease may not and often includes low platelets.
  • Mixing Study Correction: If PTT corrects, it's a deficiency; if it does not correct, an inhibitor (like Lupus anticoagulant or anti-factor VIII) is present.
  • Factor VIII vs. Factor IX Response: 1 unit/kg of Factor VIII provides double the percentage rise (2%) compared to Factor IX (1%).
  • VWD Type 1 vs. Type 3: Type 1 is mild and quantitative; Type 3 is severe with near-total VWF absence and very low Factor VIII.
  • Petechiae vs. Ecchymosis: Petechiae are pin-point (< 2mm); Ecchymoses are large bruises (> 1cm).
  • Hemostatsis Components: Platelet problems affect number or function; Clotting factor problems involve deficiency or inhibitors; Vessel problems involve connective tissue or injury.
  • Initial Screen for Bleeding Disorder: Always includes CBC with Platelets, PT, and PTT.
  • Bleeding Phenotype of VWD: Characterized by Easy bruising, Epistaxis, and Menorrhagia (Platelet-like bleeding).
  • Treatment Priority in DIC: You must treat the underlying cause; factor replacement is only supportive.
  • Factor Assay: This is the confirmatory test for Hemophilia after a prolonged PTT is found.
  • Treatment Priority in Hemophilia: Bleeds must be treated within 2 hours; head injuries require immediate factor infusion even before imaging.
  • ITP "Well Child" Rule: If the child has significant petechiae but feels fine and the rest of the physical exam is normal, ITP is the top differential.
  • Antifibrinolytic Contraindication: While generally used for mucosal bleeds, they are usually avoided in hematuria due to risk of obstructive clots.

QA

CountQuestionAnswer
1Define the active process of Hemostasis.Clots blood at injury sites while limiting size.
2What are the three components of Hemostasis?1) Blood Vessels
2) Platelets
3) Clotting Factors
3What is the mechanism involved in Primary Hemostasis?Platelet plug formation.
4Defects in Primary Hemostasis lead to what clinical phenotype?Mucosal/superficial bleeding.
5What is the mechanism involved in Secondary Hemostasis?Coagulation cascade and fibrin meshwork.
6Defects in Secondary Hemostasis lead to what clinical phenotype?Deep tissue bleeding.
7Which pathways are measured by Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)?Intrinsic and Common pathways.
8Enumerate the specific factors (8) measured by Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT).Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, I, II, V, X.
9Which pathways are measured by Prothrombin Time (PT)?Extrinsic and Common pathways.
10Enumerate the specific factors (5) measured by Prothrombin Time (PT).Factors VII, I, II, V, X.
11Deficiency in which factors (3) usually causes PTT Prolongation with Bleeding?Factors VIII, IX, or XI.
12Deficiency in which substances (3) suggests PTT Prolongation without Bleeding?Factor XII, Prekallikrein, or HMWK.
13What specific deficiency is suggested by an Isolated Prolonged PT?Factor VII deficiency.
14Enumerate the factors (4) involved in the Common Pathway.Factors X, V, II, and I.
15In the common pathway, what activates Prothrombin to Thrombin?Factor Xa.
16What is the function of Factor XIII?Crosslinks and stabilizes Fibrin Clot.
17How is Factor XIII measured in standard screening?Not measured by PT/PTT.
18Enumerate the Vitamin K Dependent Factors (4).Factors II, VII, IX, and X.
19What is the mnemonic for Vitamin K Dependent Factors?1972.
20List 4 potential diagnoses for: ↑ PT, Normal PTT/Platelets.1) Factor VII deficiency
2) Early liver disease
3) Vitamin K deficiency
4) Warfarin use
21List 4 potential diagnoses for: ↑ PTT, Normal PT/Platelets.1) Hemophilia
2) Factor XI/XII deficiency
3) von Willebrand Disease
4) PTT inhibitor
22List 5 potential diagnoses for: ↑ PT, ↑ PTT, Normal Platelets.1) Vitamin K deficiency
2) Liver disease
3) Massive transfusion
4) Oral anticoagulants
5) Common pathway deficiency
23List 2 diagnoses for: ↑ PT, ↑ PTT, ↓ Platelets.DIC or Severe liver dysfunction.
24List 5 diagnoses for: Normal PT, Normal PTT, ↓ Platelets.1) ITP
2) Infection
3) Bone marrow failure
4) WAS
5) BSS
25List 5 potential diagnoses when All Hemostasis Labs are Normal.1) Mild VWD
2) Platelet function disorders
3) Factor XIII deficiency
4) Vitamin C deficiency
5) Collagen disorders
26Define the size and significance of Petechiae.< 2 mm; low platelets.
27Define the size of Purpura.2 mm to 1 cm.
28Define the size of Ecchymoses.> 1 cm (bruises).
29Define the size and tissue involvement of Hematomas.> 1 cm; deep subcutaneous tissue.
30Enumerate three examples of Mucosal Bleeding.Epistaxis, Menorrhagia, and Petechiae.
31Enumerate three examples of Deep Tissue Bleeding.Hemarthrosis, Hematoma, and Delayed surgical bleeding.
32What is the factor deficiency in Hemophilia A?Factor VIII.
33What is the factor deficiency in Hemophilia B?Factor IX.
34Which type is the most common Hemophilia?Hemophilia A (80-85%).
35What is the inheritance pattern of Hemophilia A and B?X-linked recessive.
36What is the hallmark physical exam finding of Hemophilia?Hemarthrosis (Joint bleeding).
37What are the screening lab results for Hemophilia?↑ PTT; Normal PT/Platelets.
38What is the definitive test for Hemophilia A?Factor VIII Assay.
39What is the definitive test for Hemophilia B?Factor IX Assay.
40Describe Severe Hemophilia in terms of factor activity and bleeding risk.< 1%; spontaneous bleeds.
41Describe Moderate Hemophilia in terms of factor activity and bleeding risk.1-5%; bleeds with mild trauma.
42Describe Mild Hemophilia in terms of factor activity and bleeding risk.5-40%; bleeds with major trauma/surgery.
43Enumerate the three most common hinged joints for Hemarthrosis.Ankle, knees, and elbows.
44What does a Mixing Study distinguish?Factor deficiency from inhibitors.
45If the PTT corrects with normal plasma during a Mixing Study, what does it indicate?Factor Deficiency.
46How much does 1 unit/kg of Factor VIII raise plasma levels in Hemophilia A?2% (2 IU/dl).
47What is the half-life of Factor VIII in Hemophilia A?8-12 hours.
48How much does 1 unit/kg of Factor IX raise plasma levels in Hemophilia B?1% (1 IU/dl).
49What is the half-life of Factor IX in Hemophilia B?18-24 hours.
50What is the management principle for life-threatening bleeds in Hemophilia?Treat first before diagnostic tests.
51Enumerate Supportive Care (RICE) components for acute bleeding.Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation.
52List 3 Hemophilia Precautions regarding procedures/meds.Avoid IM injections, aspirin, NSAIDs.
53What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder? Von Willebrand DiseaseVon Willebrand Disease (VWD).
54What are the two primary roles of Von Willebrand Factor (VWF)?1) Glues platelets to endothelium
2) Protects Factor VIII
55What is a frequent complication of Von Willebrand Disease in women?Menorrhagia (heavy menses).
56Which Blood Type is associated with lower baseline VWF levels?Blood Type O.
57Describe VWD Type 1.Partial quantitative deficiency (most common).
58What is the treatment for VWD Type 1?Desmopressin.
59Describe VWD Type 2.Qualitative/dysfunctional VWF.
60Describe VWD Type 3.Total absence of VWF.
61What is the definitive test for Von Willebrand Disease?VWF Assay.
62What is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children? Immune ThrombocytopeniaImmune Thrombocytopenia (ITP).
63Define the pathogenesis of Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP).IgG autoantibodies against platelet glycoproteins.
64Enumerate the two platelet glycoproteins targeted in ITP.GP IIb/IIIa or GP Ib/IX.
65Where does platelet destruction occur in ITP?Spleen.
66What is the clinical presentation of Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)?Abrupt petechiae/bruising in healthy child.
67What is often found in the patient history of ITP?Viral infection or immunization.
68What findings should be absent on the physical exam of ITP?Splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy.
69What does the CBC show in Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)?Isolated thrombocytopenia (< 100 x 10⁹/L).
70Describe the platelet size in Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP).Normal to large platelets.
71When is Bone Marrow Examination indicated in ITP?If features are atypical or steroids fail.
72What is the spontaneous resolution rate for ITP?80% (within 3-6 months).
73What is the management for ITP with mild bleeding?Observation.
74Enumerate 3 pharmacotherapy options for Acute ITP.Corticosteroids, IVIG, or Anti-D.
75When is a Splenectomy reserved for ITP?Severe persistent or chronic cases.
76Thrombosis in Children is usually secondary to what (3)?Critically ill states, cancer, estrogen.
77Who is at risk for Late Vitamin K Deficiency?Breastfed infants or malabsorption.
78Define Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).Thrombotic microangiopathy consuming factors/platelets.
79What are the diagnostic lab findings for DIC?Prolonged PT, prolonged PTT, low Platelets.
80What is the priority in DIC Treatment?Treating the underlying trigger.
81What is Tranexamic Acid used for?Antifibrinolytic for mucosal bleeding.
82Compare ITP vs. Leukemia regarding physical exam.ITP: well child; Leukemia: unwell, hepatosplenomegaly.
83Compare Hemophilia vs. VWD clinical phenotype.Hemophilia: deep tissue; VWD: mucosal.
84Compare Hemophilia A vs. B symptoms.Indistinguishable.
85Compare Primary vs. Secondary Hemostasis bleeding type.Primary: immediate/petechiae; Secondary: delayed/hematomas.
86What is the best screen for Factor VII and Warfarin?Prothrombin Time (PT).
87What is the best screen for the Intrinsic Pathway and Heparin?Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT).
88How do VWD and Hemophilia A differ on factor assay?VWF is low in VWD; normal in Hemophilia A.
89Small platelets on CBC suggest what diagnosis? Wiskott-Aldrich SyndromeWiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS).
90How to differentiate Vitamin K Deficiency vs. Liver Disease?Vit K deficiency responds to Vitamin K.
91What does Mixing Study non-correction imply?Presence of an inhibitor.
92Contrast VWD Type 1 vs. Type 3 severity.Type 1: mild/quantitative; Type 3: severe/absence.
93Contrast Petechiae vs. Ecchymosis size.Petechiae < 2mm; Ecchymoses > 1cm.
94What does Secondary Hemostasis problems involve?Clotting factor deficiency or inhibitors.
95What is the Initial Screen for bleeding disorders?CBC with Platelets, PT, and PTT.
96Describe the Bleeding Phenotype of VWD.Easy bruising, Epistaxis, and Menorrhagia.
97What is the confirmatory test for Hemophilia?Factor Assay.
98Hemophilia bleeds must be treated within how many hours?Within 2 hours.
99What is the treatment priority for a Hemophilia Head Injury?Immediate factor infusion before imaging.
100What is the ITP "Well Child" Rule?Significant petechiae, asymptomatic child, normal exam.
101Why is Tranexamic Acid avoided in hematuria?Risk of obstructive clots.
102What activates Prothrombin to Thrombin?Factor Xa.
103Does standard PT and PTT measure Factor XIII?No.
104Hemophilia A represents what percentage of cases?80-85%.
105What is the dose response of 1 unit/kg Factor IX?1% rise.

5.3 - Neoplasms of the Blood

Summary

text

CHILDHOOD CANCER AND HEMATOLOGIC MALIGNANCIES

Feature Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)
Frequency 77% of childhood leukemias (Most common) 11% of childhood leukemias 2-3% of childhood leukemias 1-2% of childhood leukemias (Least common)
Peak Age 2-3 years of age Increases in adolescence (15-19 yrs) N/A Younger than 2 years of age
Hallmark Genetics t(12;21) ETV6-RUNX1 (Favorable) t(15;17) in APL (Favorable) t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome (99%) RAS pathway mutations (NF1, PTPN11); No Philadelphia chromosome
Diagnostic Blast % >25% lymphoblasts in Bone Marrow >20% blasts in Bone Marrow Varies by phase (Chronic <10%) <20% blasts; requires monocytosis
Unique Findings Pancytopenia, bone pain, lymphadenopathy DIC (esp APL), Chloromas, Gingival infiltration, Blueberry muffin lesions Hyperleukocytosis (>100k), Normal/Elevated platelets Massive splenomegaly, rashes, hemorrhagic manifestations
Standard Treatment Multi-phase Chemotherapy (2-3 years) Intensive Chemotherapy; Stem Cell Transplant Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant (Curative)

Feature Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)
Incidence Bimodal age distribution (peaks 15-35 and 50) 60% of pediatric lymphomas; aggressive/high-grade
Pathologic Hallmark Reed-Sternberg cells (Large cells, multilobulated nuclei) Subtype-specific (LBL, Burkitt, DLBCL, ALCL)
Clinical Presentation Painless, firm, rubbery cervical nodes; "B symptoms" common Rapidly progressing mass; SVC syndrome; oncologic emergencies
Spread Pattern Predictable/In-order nodal spread Non-contiguous/Extranodal spread (Abdomen, Mediastinum, CNS)
Associated Virus EBV, CMV, HHV-6 EBV, HIV

GENERAL ONCOLOGY AND CHEMOTHERAPY

  • Childhood cancer comprises mostly of leukemias, lymphomas, and brain tumors, whereas carcinomas and melanomas are more characteristically seen in adolescents.
  • In childhood malignancies, the most common type of cancer overall is leukemia.
  • In Leukemia or Neuroblastoma with bone marrow infiltration, patients often present with fever, persistent infections, and neutropenia.
  • In Lymphomas (Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin), hallmark systemic findings include Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO), weight loss, night sweats, and painless lymphadenopathy.
  • In Brain tumors, common manifestations include headaches and visual disturbances resulting from increased intracranial pressure.
  • In Retinoblastoma, the signature clinical finding is leukokoria (white pupillary reflex).
  • In Neuroblastoma, periorbital ecchymosis ("raccoon eyes") is often present, representing metastatic disease.
  • In Anterior mediastinal masses (such as gest cell tumors and lymphomas), patients often present with cough, stridor, and tracheobronchial compression.
  • In Neuroblastoma, gastrointestinal symptoms can include a palpable abdominal mass or diarrhea.
  • In Osteosarcoma and Ewing’s sarcoma, musculoskeletal symptoms like bone pain, limping, and arthralgia are primary features.
  • In Brain tumors, Craniopharyngioma, or Langerhans cell histiocytosis, neuroendocrine involvement may manifest as diabetes insipidus and poor growth.
  • At Cisplatin (Cp), the primary chemotherapy side effects are ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and high emetic potential.
  • At Bleomycin (B), the most concerning chemotherapy-related toxicity involves lung disturbances (pulmonary fibrosis).
  • At Doxorubicin (D), the dose-limiting chemotherapy side effect is cardiac toxicity.
  • At Methotrexate (Mtx), chemotherapy side effects commonly include liver toxicity.
  • At Irinotecan (Ir), a major chemotherapy side effect is severe diarrhea.

ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA (ALL)

  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the disease represents the most common malignant neoplasm in childhood, accounting for 31% of all childhood malignancies.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the peak age of incidence is 2 to 3 years of age.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the B-cell immunophenotype is more common (85%) and carries a better prognosis compared to the T-cell phenotype (15%).
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), hyperdiploidy (extra chromosomes) is associated with a better prognosis, while hypodiploidy is unfavorable.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the translocation t(12;21) (p13;q22) ETV-RUNX1 is the most common and carries a favorable prognosis.
  • In ALL Morphology L1 Type, lymphoblasts are small, uniform, and monotonous with scant cytoplasm; this is the most common type in children.
  • In ALL Morphology L2 Type, lymphoblasts are large and heterogeneous, often variable in size and shape, and can be mistaken for AML.
  • In ALL Morphology L3 (Burkitt Type), cells show deeply basophilic cytoplasm with characteristic cytoplasmic vacuoles and round nuclei.
  • At ALL risk stratification, Standard Risk is defined as age 1–9.99 years and a initial WBC < 50,000/µL.
  • At ALL risk stratification, High Risk is defined as age <1 year or ≥10 years, and/or an initial WBC > 50,000/µL.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), boys historically had a poorer prognosis due to risks of testicular relapse and higher T-cell ALL incidence, though modern intensive therapy has narrowed this gap.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the definitive diagnosis requires a Bone Marrow Aspiration (BMA) showing >25% lymphoblasts.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), Serum LDH is measured to assess tumor burden; higher levels indicate greater burden.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), a Chest X-ray must be performed to check for an anterior mediastinal mass.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), a Lumbar Puncture is required after diagnosis to assess for CNS involvement.
  • In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Induction, the goal is the induction of remission.
  • In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Consolidation, the goal is to reinforce remission in the CNS and marrow compartments.
  • In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Interim Maintenance and Delayed Intensification, the goal is to further reduce residual leukemia in the marrow.
  • In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Maintenance, the goal is to reduce the overall risk of relapse; total treatment typically takes 2-3 years.
  • In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), supportive care includes "Double Hydration," allopurinol for uric acid, and Pneumocystis jirovecii prophylaxis.

ACUTE MYELOGENOUS LEUKEMIA (AML)

  • In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), the relative frequency increases significantly during adolescence, representing 36% of leukemias in 15-19 year olds.
  • In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), risk factors include ionizing radiation, Down syndrome, Fanconi anemia, and prior exposure to alkylating agents or epipodophyllotoxins.
  • In Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL), signs and laboratory findings of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) are common.
  • In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), "blueberry muffin" lesions (subcutaneous nodules) may be observed.
  • In AML (especially Monocytic Subtype), infiltration of the gingiva (gums) is a characteristic clinical finding.
  • In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), Chloromas or Granulocytic Sarcomas (leukemic masses) can fill soft tissue spaces in the eyes, gums, or skin.
  • In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), diagnosis is confirmed by Bone Marrow Aspiration showing >20% blasts.
  • In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), favorable cytogenetic features include t(8;21), t(15;17), and Inv (16).
  • In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), unfavorable cytogenetic features include Monosomies 7 and 5, and 11q23 abnormalities.

CHRONIC (CML) AND JUVENILE MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA (JMML)

  • In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML), 99% of cases are associated with the t(9;22)(q34;q11) translocation, known as the Philadelphia chromosome.
  • In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML), patients often present with hyperleukocytosis (WBC >100,000) and normal or elevated platelet counts.
  • In CML Treatment, Imatinib (or Dasatinib) is an oral tyrosine kinase inhibitor that inhibits BCR-ABL and often requires lifelong administration.
  • In Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML), the disease typically affects children younger than 2 years of age and presents with massive splenomegaly, monocytosis, and no Philadelphia chromosome.
  • In Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML), mutations often lead to activation of the RAS oncogene pathway (NF1, PTPN11).
  • In Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML), transplant is the only curative intent treatment, though survival is generally very poor.

LYMPHOMAS

  • In Lymphoma, it is the most common cancer in adolescents aged 15-19 years.
  • In Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL), the hallmark finding is the Reed-Sternberg cell, described as a large cell with multiple or multilobulated nuclei.
  • In Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL), physical examination typically reveals painless, non-tender, firm, and "rubbery" cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy.
  • At Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) "B symptoms", the triad consists of unexplained fever >38°C, weight loss >10% in 6 months, and drenching night sweats.
  • In Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) staging, Stage I involves a single node region, while Stage IV indicates diffuse metastasis to extralymphatic organs.
  • In Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL), the disease is categorised by high-grade, aggressive behavior; 70% of pediatric patients have Stage III-IV disease at diagnosis.
  • In Burkitt Lymphoma (NHL Subtype), characteristics include t(8;14) translocation, mature B-cell phenotype (CD19, CD20 positive), and a "starry sky" appearance (suggested by rapid turnover).
  • In Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL), the disease frequently presents as an oncologic emergency like Superior Vena Caval (SVC) Syndrome or Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) due to rapid cell turnover.
  • In NHL St. Jude Staging, any primary intrathoracic mass (mediastinal, pleural) is automatically classified as Stage III.
  • In Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL), radiation therapy is reserved for special circumstances like CNS involvement in LBL, airway obstruction (SMS), or paraplegia.

ONCOLOGIC EMERGENCIES (HYPERLEUKOCYTOSIS & TLS)

  • At Hyperleukocytosis, the condition is defined as a total WBC count greater than 100,000 cells/mm³.
  • In Hyperleukocytosis Management, aggressive hydration with 3L/m²/day of IVF (D5 0.45 NaCl) is required, and transfusion of Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC) must be avoided to prevent further increasing viscosity.
  • In Hyperleukocytosis Management, platelets should ideally be maintained at 50,000 to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
  • At Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), the condition involves the rapid release of intracellular metabolites (Potassium, Phosphorus, Nucleic acids) exceeding renal excretory capacity.
  • In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), diagnosis requires two or more of: Uric acid >8 mg/dL, Potassium >6 meq/dL, Phosphorus >2.1 mmol/L, or Calcium <1.75 mmol/L (or 25% change from baseline).
  • In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), hyperkalemia is characterized by widened QRS and peaked T-waves on ECG.
  • In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), hypocalcemia presents with tetany, seizures, a prolonged QTc interval, and + Trousseau/Chovestek signs.
  • In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) Management, alkalinization of urine is now avoided to prevent precipitation of xanthine calculi and calcium phosphate in renal tubules.
  • At Rasburicase (recombinant urate oxidase), the drug effectively reduces existing uric acid (unlike Allopurinol which only blocks new formation).
  • In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), dialysis is indicated for potassium >6 meq/L, phosphate >10 mg/dL, or volume overload/anuria unresponsive to medical therapy.

DIFFERENTIATION AND COMPARISONS FOR EXAMS

  1. In Acute Leukemia Diagnosis, ALL requires >25% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow, whereas AML requires >20% blasts.
  2. In Leukemia vs. ITP, Leukemia typically presents with pancytopenia and organomegaly, while ITP presents with isolated thrombocytopenia and a normal-sized spleen.
  3. In CML vs. JMML, the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) is present in 99% of CML cases but is notably absent in JMML.
  4. In CML vs. Acute Leukemia, CML usually presents with extreme hyperleukocytosis but with normal or elevated platelet counts, unlike the thrombocytopenia typical of acute forms.
  5. In Hodgkin vs. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, Hodgkin usually presents with slow, firm, rubbery nodal enlargement, while Non-Hodgkin presents with a very rapidly progressing mass and higher risk of SVC syndrome.
  6. In Hodgkin Lymphoma Staging, Stage II refers to nodes on the same side of the diaphragm, while Stage III refers to involvement on both sides of the diaphragm.
  7. In NHL Staging, a single side of the diaphragm involvement is Stage II, but any intrathoracic/mediastinal mass is automatically Stage III.
  8. In Hyperleukocytosis risk, Myeloblasts (AML) are bigger and "stickier" than Lymphoblasts (ALL), causing leukostasis at lower counts (~200k in AML vs ~300k in ALL).
  9. In Allopurinol vs. Rasburicase, Allopurinol prevents the formation of new uric acid, while Rasburicase breaks down pre-existing uric acid.
  10. In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), the classic metabolic quadriad is Hyperuricemia, Hyperkalemia, Hyperphosphatemia, and Hypocalcemia (Secondary).
  11. In ALL Morphology, L1 cells are small and uniform (most common in children), L2 cells are large/heterogeneous (mimic AML), and L3 cells are basophilic with vacuoles (Burkitt type).
  12. In AML special findings, Gingival hyperplasia/infiltration is most specific for the monocytic subtype (M4/M5).
  13. In Leukemia Skin findings, "Blueberry muffin" lesions are associated with AML, while "Chloromas" are specifically localized collections of myeloblasts.
  14. In ALL cytogenetics, t(12;21) is the most common and "good" prognosis, while t(9;22) in ALL is associated with "poor" prognosis.
  15. In Pediatric vs. Adult Cancers, pediatric cancers are predominantly blast-based (leukemias/sarcomas), while adult cancers are predominantly epithelial (carcinomas).
  16. In Hodgkin Lymphoma biopsy, Excision biopsy is preferred over needle biopsy to allow for proper subtyping and immunostaining.
  17. In Burkitt Lymphoma genetics, the characteristic translocation is t(8;14) involving the MYC oncogene.
  18. In ALL Support, double hydration is standard, but in Hyperleukocytosis, PRBC transfusions are avoided as they worsen blood viscosity and risk stroke.
  19. In JMML Diagnosis, the patient is usually <2 years old with monocytosis; in CML Diagnosis, the patient can be older and has the Philadelphia chromosome.
  20. In Hyperuricemia Presentation, patients may show microscopic hematuria due to uric acid crystals in the renal tubules.

QA

CountQuestionAnswer
1What is the frequency of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?77% (Most common)
2What is the frequency of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)?11% of childhood leukemias
3What is the frequency of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?2-3% of childhood leukemias
4What is the frequency of Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)?1-2% (Least common)
5What is the peak age for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?2-3 years
6When does the incidence of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) increase?Adolescence (15-19 years)
7What is the peak age for Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)?Younger than 2 years
8What is the hallmark genetics/translocation for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?t(12;21) ETV6-RUNX1 (Favorable)
9What is the hallmark genetic finding in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)?t(15;17) (Favorable)
10What is the genetic hallmark of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome
11What are the hallmark mutations (2) in Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)?1) NF1
2) PTPN11 (RAS pathway)
12What is the diagnostic blast percentage in bone marrow for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?>25% lymphoblasts
13What is the diagnostic blast percentage for Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)?>20% blasts
14What is the diagnostic blast percentage for Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) chronic phase?<10% blasts
15What are the diagnostic blast and cell requirements for Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)?<20% blasts; requires monocytosis
16What are the unique clinical findings (3) in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?1) Pancytopenia
2) Bone pain
3) Lymphadenopathy
17What are the unique findings (4) associated with Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)?1) DIC
2) Chloromas
3) Gingival infiltration
4) Blueberry muffin lesions
18What are the unique laboratory findings (2) in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?1) Hyperleukocytosis (>100k)
2) Normal/Elevated platelets
19What are the unique clinical findings (3) in Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)?1) Massive splenomegaly
2) Rashes
3) Hemorrhagic manifestations
20What is the standard treatment for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?Multi-phase Chemotherapy (2-3 years)
21What are the standard treatments (2) for Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)?1) Intensive Chemotherapy
2) Stem Cell Transplant
22What is the standard treatment drug for Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)?Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib)
23What is the curative treatment for Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)?Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant
24Describe the incidence age distribution of Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL).Bimodal (15-35 and 50 years)
25What percentage of pediatric lymphomas is Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)?60% (Aggressive/high-grade)
26What is the pathologic hallmark of Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)?Reed-Sternberg cells
27Enumerate the common subtypes (4) of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL).1) LBL
2) Burkitt
3) DLBCL
4) ALCL
28What is the clinical presentation of nodes in Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)?Painless, firm, rubbery cervical nodes
29What are the clinical presentations (3) of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)?1) Rapid mass
2) SVC syndrome
3) Oncologic emergencies
30What is the nodal spread pattern in Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)?Predictable/In-order spread
31What is the spread pattern in Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)?Non-contiguous/Extranodal spread
32List the viruses (3) associated with Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL).1) EBV
2) CMV
3) HHV-6
33List the viruses (2) associated with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL).1) EBV
2) HIV
34What are the three most common childhood cancers?Leukemias, lymphomas, brain tumors
35Which types of cancer are more characteristic of adolescents than younger children?Carcinomas and melanomas
36What is the most common type of cancer overall in childhood malignancies?Leukemia
37How do patients with Leukemia or Neuroblastoma with marrow infiltration present (3)?1) Fever
2) Persistent infections
3) Neutropenia
38What are the hallmark systemic findings (4) in Lymphomas?1) FUO
2) Weight loss
3) Night sweats
4) Painless lymphadenopathy
39What are common manifestations (2) of Brain tumors due to increased ICP?1) Headaches
2) Visual disturbances
40What is the signature clinical finding in Retinoblastoma?Leukokoria (white pupillary reflex)
41What metastatic finding is often present in Neuroblastoma?Periorbital ecchymosis ("raccoon eyes")
42What symptoms (3) are associated with Anterior mediastinal masses?1) Cough
2) Stridor
3) Tracheobronchial compression
43What gastrointestinal findings (2) can occur in Neuroblastoma?1) Palpable abdominal mass
2) Diarrhea
44What musculoskeletal symptoms (3) define Osteosarcoma/Ewing’s sarcoma?1) Bone pain
2) Limping
3) Arthralgia
45How does neuroendocrine involvement manifest (2) in Brain tumors/LCH?1) Diabetes insipidus
2) Poor growth
46What are the primary side effects (3) of Cisplatin (Cp)?1) Ototoxicity
2) Nephrotoxicity
3) High emetic potential
47What is the most concerning toxicity of Bleomycin (B)?Lung disturbances (pulmonary fibrosis)
48What is the dose-limiting side effect of Doxorubicin (D)?Cardiac toxicity
49What is a common chemotherapy side effect of Methotrexate (Mtx)?Liver toxicity
50What is a major side effect of Irinotecan (Ir)?Severe diarrhea
51Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) accounts for what percentage of childhood malignancies?31%
52Compare the frequency and prognosis of B-cell vs T-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).B-cell: 85% (Better prognosis)
T-cell: 15% (Poorer)
53Compare the prognostic significance of hyperdiploidy vs hypodiploidy in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).Hyperdiploidy: Better prognosis
Hypodiploidy: Unfavorable
54Describe ALL Morphology L1 Type.Small, uniform, scan cytoplasm (Most common)
55Describe ALL Morphology L2 Type.Large, heterogeneous, variable size/shape
56What are the features of ALL Morphology L3 (Burkitt Type)?Basophilic cytoplasm, vacuoles, round nuclei
57Define Standard Risk ALL risk stratification criteria (2).1) Age 1–9.99 years
2) WBC < 50,000/µL
58Define High Risk ALL risk stratification criteria (2).1) Age <1 or ≥10
2) WBC > 50,000/µL
59Why did boys historically have a poorer prognosis in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) (2)?1) Testicular relapse
2) Higher T-cell incidence
60What is the definitive diagnostic test for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?Bone Marrow Aspiration (>25% lymphoblasts)
61Why is Serum LDH measured in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?Assess tumor burden
62Why is a Chest X-ray performed in new Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) cases?Check for anterior mediastinal mass
63What is the purpose of Lumbar Puncture in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?Assess for CNS involvement
64What is the goal of the ALL Induction phase?Induction of remission
65What is the goal of the ALL Consolidation phase?Reinforce remission (CNS and marrow)
66What is the goal of ALL Maintenance chemotherapy?Reduce overall risk of relapse
67List the supportive care measures (3) for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL).1) Double Hydration
2) Allopurinol
3) Pneumocystis prophylaxis
68What percentage of leukemias in 15-19 year olds is Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)?36%
69List risk factors (4) for Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML).1) Radiation
2) Down syndrome
3) Fanconi anemia
4) Alkylating agents
70What emergency condition is common in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)?DIC
71In which AML subtype is gingival infiltration characteristic?Monocytic Subtype
72What are Chloromas (Granulocytic Sarcomas) in AML?Leukemic masses in soft tissue
73List favorable cytogenetic features (3) in Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML).1) t(8;21)
2) t(15;17)
3) Inv (16)
74List unfavorable cytogenetics (3) in Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML).1) Monosomy 7/5
2) 11q23 abnormalities
75How long does Imatinib (CML treatment) usually need to be administered?Lifelong administration
76What is the mechanism of Imatinib?Inhibits BCR-ABL (Tyrosine kinase inhibitor)
77What pathway is activated in Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)?RAS oncogene pathway
78What is the most common cancer in adolescents aged 15-19?Lymphoma
79Describe the appearance of Reed-Sternberg cells.Large cells; multilobulated nuclei
80Enumerate the Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) "B symptoms" triad.1) Fever >38°C
2) Weight loss >10%
3) Drenching night sweats
81Define Stage I Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) staging.Single node region
82Define Stage IV Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) staging.Diffuse metastasis to extralymphatic organs
83What percentage of pediatric Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL) patients have Stage III-IV at diagnosis?70%
84List features (3) of Burkitt Lymphoma (NHL Subtype).1) t(8;14)
2) CD19/20 positive
3) "Starry sky" appearance
85What oncologic emergencies (2) are associated with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)?1) SVC Syndrome
2) Tumor Lysis Syndrome
86In NHL St. Jude Staging, what automatically classifies a mass as Stage III?Any primary intrathoracic mass
87When is radiation therapy used in Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL) (3)?1) LBL CNS involvement
2) Airway obstruction
3) Paraplegia
88Define Hyperleukocytosis.Total WBC > 100,000 cells/mm³
89What is the hydration requirement for Hyperleukocytosis Management?3L/m²/day (D5 0.45 NaCl)
90Why must Red Blood Cell transfusion be avoided in Hyperleukocytosis?Prevents increasing blood viscosity
91What is the target platelet count to prevent hemorrhage in Hyperleukocytosis?50,000
92Define Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS).Rapid release of intracellular metabolites
93List the diagnostic criteria (4 metabolic changes) for Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS).1) Uric acid >8
2) Potassium >6
3) Phosphorus >2.1
4) Calcium <1.75
94What are the ECG findings (2) of hyperkalemia in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)?1) Widened QRS
2) Peaked T-waves
95What are the signs (4) of hypocalcemia in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)?1) Tetany
2) Seizures
3) Prolonged QTc
4) Trousseau/Chovestek signs
96Why is urine alkalinization avoided in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)?Prevents xanthine/calcium phosphate precipitation
97Contrast Allopurinol vs. Rasburicase.Allopurinol: Blocks new formation
Rasburicase: Reduces existing uric acid
98When is dialysis indicated in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) (3)?1) K >6
2) Phos >10
3) Volume overload/anuria
99Compare Leukemia vs. ITP presentation.Leukemia: Pancytopenia + organomegaly
ITP: Isolated thrombocytopenia + normal spleen
100Contrast CML vs. JMML genetics.CML: Philadelphia chromosome present
JMML: Philadelphia chromosome absent
101Compare CML vs. Acute Leukemia platelets.CML: Normal/Elevated platelets
Acute Leukemia: Thrombocytopenia
102Compare Hodgkin vs. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma progression.Hodgkin: Slow/Rubbery
Non-Hodgkin: Rapidly progressing mass
103Define Stage II vs Stage III Hodgkin Lymphoma Staging.Stage II: One side of diaphragm
Stage III: Both sides of diaphragm
104Contrast AML vs ALL leukostasis risk.AML: Higher risk at lower counts (~200k)
105What is the classic metabolic quadriad of Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)?Hyperuricemia, Hyperkalemia, Hyperphosphatemia, Hypocalcemia
106Contrast Pediatric vs. Adult Cancers.Pediatric: Blast-based (sarcomas)
Adult: Epithelial (carcinomas)
107What is the preferred biopsy for Hodgkin Lymphoma?Excision biopsy
108What translocation involves the MYC oncogene in Burkitt Lymphoma?t(8;14)
109What causes microscopic hematuria in Hyperuricemia?Uric acid crystals in tubules

5.4 - Childhood Cancer

Summary

text

I. PEDIATRIC ABDOMINAL AND SOLID TUMORS

FeatureNeuroblastomaWilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)HepatoblastomaGerm Cell Tumors (GCT)
OriginSympathetic chain or adrenal medulla (65% abdominal)Embryonic renal precursor cellsPrecursors of hepatocytesGonads or Midline structures
Peak AgeMost common in infants (<1 yr); 75% <4 years old2-3 years old (80% <5 years old)Mean age 1 year (80% <3 years old)Bimodal (infancy and adolescence)
Common S/SxPain, Raccoon eyes, SubQ nodules, weight loss, Opsoclonus-myoclonusAsymptomatic abdominal flank mass, HTN, hematuriaAsymptomatic mass, anorexia, weight lossMidline mass, precocious puberty (if HCG+)
Key ImagingHeterogeneous mass crossing midline; calcifications/hemorrhage"Claw sign" (normal renal tissue grasping mass); does NOT cross midlineSolid liver massMidline locations (Sacrococcygeal, Mediastinal)
Tumor MarkersElevated urine VMA and HVANone specificVery high AFP; ThrombocytosisAFP (Yolk sac), B-HCG (Choriocarcinoma)
PathologySmall round blue cells; RosettesTriphasic histology (blastemal, stromal, epithelial)Epithelial or Mixed (epithelial/mesenchymal)Teratomas, Germinomas, Yolk Sac, Choriocarcinoma
ManagementSurgery, Chemo, Radiation; Stem cell rescue for high-riskUpfront surgery (COG) or Pre-op chemo (SIOP)Complete resection is curative; Chemo; TransplantComplete surgical excision + Chemotherapy
  • In pediatric abdominal masses, age is the most important factor for narrowing differentials: Neonates usually have congenital malformations, children 1-5 years usually have Wilms or Neuroblastoma, and adolescents often have lymphoma or germ cell tumors.
  • For adolescent females with abdominal masses, practitioners must always consider pregnancy as a differential diagnosis.
  • Most pediatric abdominal malignancies are asymptomatic and found accidentally by parents during bathing or by physicians during well-child checkups.
  • A thrombocytosis (platelets as high as 1.5 million) in a child with a liver mass is a hallmark finding of Hepatoblastoma due to tumor production of thrombopoietin.
  • In Neuroblastoma, periorbital hemorrhage or "raccoon eyes" occurs due to tumor infiltration of the skull or orbital bones.
  • Horner’s Syndrome (meiosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, anhidrosis) in Neuroblastoma indicates cervical sympathetic chain involvement.
  • Wilms Tumor is associated with specific syndromes including WAGR (Wilms, Aniridia, GU anomalies, Retardation), Denys-Drash, and Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome.
  • A biopsy is strictly discouraged/contraindicated in Wilms Tumor as it results in tumor seeding and upstaging of the disease.
  • Hypertension in a child with Wilms Tumor is common and is driven by increased renin production or renal artery obstruction.
  • Stage MS Neuroblastoma is a unique category for children <18 months where metastasis is confined to skin, liver, or bone marrow and may undergo spontaneous regression.
  • Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome predisposes children to Wilms Tumor, Hepatoblastoma, and Adrenal Carcinoma.
  • Klinefelter Syndrome is specifically associated with an increased risk of mediastinal Germ Cell Tumors.
  • AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein) levels normally remain high in infants until approximately 8 months of age, which must be considered when diagnosing Germ Cell Tumors.

II. BRAIN TUMORS, BONE TUMORS, AND RETINOBLASTOMA

FeatureBrain Tumors (General)RetinoblastomaOsteosarcoma (OS)Ewing Sarcoma (EWS)
Incidence2nd most common pediatric cancerMost common intraocular tumorMost common bone tumor; Peak adolescence2nd most common bone tumor
Key FindingsMorning headache, vomiting, papilledemaLeukocoria (white reflex), StrabismusBone pain, swelling at metaphysisBone pain, swelling at diaphysis
ImagingMRI with Gadolinium (Standard)Chalky white-gray retinal mass"Sunburst" pattern; Codman triangle"Onion-skinning" (periosteal reaction)
PathologyLocation-dependent (Astrocytoma, Medulloblastoma)Small round blue cells; Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettesMalignant osteoid productionSmall round blue cells (PAS positive)
ContraindicationN/ABiopsy is contraindicatedN/AN/A
  • Brain tumor location varies by age: In the 1st year of life, tumors are typically supratentorial; between 1-10 years, they are primarily infratentorial (e.g., Medulloblastoma); after age 10, they are again mostly supratentorial.
  • Parinaud Syndrome (upward gaze palsy, light-near dissociation/Pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupil) is a hallmark of tumors in the pineal region.
  • Diencephalic Syndrome, characterized by failure to thrive and emaciation despite normal intake, is seen in tumors of the suprasellar and third ventricular regions.
  • Retinoblastoma survivors, particularly those with hereditary forms (RB1/TP53 mutations), have a significantly increased risk of developing Osteosarcoma later in life.
  • Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common pediatric soft tissue sarcoma, frequently presenting as a small round blue cell tumor requiring immunohistochemistry (desmin, myogenin) for diagnosis.
  • Botryoid Rhabdomyosarcoma is a variant that appears like a "bunch of grapes" and is typically found in mucosal-lined cavities like the vagina or bladder.
  • Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma is associated with the PAX-FOXO1 transcript and carries the poorest prognosis among the histologic types.

III. PEDIATRIC BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS

ComponentPRBC (Red Cells)PlateletsFFP (Plasma)
Dose10 - 15 mL/kg5 - 10 mL/kg (Pheresis: 1 unit/10kg)10 - 15 mL/kg
Effect10 mL/kg raises Hb by 2 g/dLIncreases count by ~50k-100kReplaces clotting factors
TriggersHb <7 g/dL in stable; Hb <10 if symptomatic<10k (stable); <20k (sepsis/DIC); <50k (surgery)Bleeding + PT/PTT >1.5x normal; DIC
  • The 30-minute rule in blood banking states that RBC units left at room temperature for >30 minutes cannot be returned to storage for reissue.
  • The 4-hour rule requires that the infusion of any blood component must be completed within 4 hours of removal from controlled storage to prevent bacterial proliferation.
  • In pediatric blood transfusion, the only compatible IV fluid to be given concomitantly with PRBCs is 0.9% Normal Saline.
  • Fever is NOT a contraindication to starting a blood transfusion; however, a temperature rise of >1°C during/after is classified as a Febrile Non-hemolytic Transfusion Reaction.
  • Emergency Release of Blood (when group is unknown) should utilize Type O RBCs and Type AB Platelets/Plasma.
  • Pediatric Massive Transfusion is defined as replacing >50% of total blood volume in 3 hours or >100% in 24 hours.
  • Routine premedication (Acetaminophen/Diphenhydramine) for blood transfusions is generally considered a poor practice as evidence suggests it is not effective prophylaxis for first-time reactions.
  • In Hema-Oncology patients, a Lumbar Puncture usually requires a platelet threshold of 20k-40k/uL.
  • For Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA), transfusion should never be withheld if life-threatening anemia is present, even if crossmatching is incompatible.

IV. DIFFERENTIATING CLINICAL PEARLS (EXAM FOCUS)

  1. Neuroblastoma vs. Wilms Tumor: Neuroblastoma occurs in younger children (<1 yr), often crosses the midline, and has calcifications on CT; Wilms occurs older (2-3 yrs), remains in the renal flank (rarely crosses midline), and shows the "Claw Sign."
  2. Osteosarcoma vs. Ewing Sarcoma Imaging: Osteosarcoma presents with a "Sunburst" pattern at the metaphysis; Ewing Sarcoma presents with "Onion-skinning" at the diaphysis.
  3. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) Risk Stratification: Standard Risk is age 1-10 years and WBC <50,000; High Risk is age <1 year or >10 years, or WBC >50,000.
  4. AFP vs. B-HCG Markers: AFP is elevated in Yolk Sac Tumors and Hepatoblastoma; B-HCG is elevated in Choriocarcinoma.
  5. Supratentorial vs. Infratentorial Brain Tumors: Infratentorial tumors (Medulloblastoma/Astrocytoma) dominate the 1-10 year old age group; Supratentorial tumors dominate infancy and adolescence.
  6. Small Round Blue Cells: This is a common histologic finding for Neuroblastoma, Ewing Sarcoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma, and Retinoblastoma; differentiation requires IHC (e.g., desmin for Rhabdo, PAS for Ewing).
  7. Thrombocytosis in Tumors: If an abdominal mass is present, thrombocytosis points toward Hepatoblastoma; if pancytopenia is present, it suggests bone marrow infiltration (likely Neuroblastoma or Leukemia).
  8. Tumor Marker "Normal Value" Trap: In Teratomas and Germinomas, tumor markers (AFP/HCG) are typically Normal; do not rule them out based on markers alone.
  9. Claw Sign vs. Midline Crossing: The Claw Sign is specific for an intra-renal tumor (Wilms); encasing major vessels and crossing the midline is classic for Neuroblastoma.
  10. Leukocoria (White Reflex): While the differential is broad, in pediatric oncology, this is Retinoblastoma until proven otherwise.
  11. Opsoclonus-Myoclonus ("Dancing Eyes/Feet"): Although less emphasized in this text, it is a paraneoplastic syndrome highly associated with Neuroblastoma.
  12. Renin elevation: This is the primary cause of hypertension in Wilms Tumor, distinguishing it from catecholamine-induced hypertension in Neuroblastoma.
  13. WAGR Syndrome: The "A" stands for Aniridia (absence of iris), which is a major red flag for underlying Wilms Tumor.
  14. Botryoid variant: If the question mentions a "bunch of grapes" in a child's vagina or bladder, the answer is Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma.
  15. PRBC Volume Calculation: Always remember 10 mL/kg raises Hb by 2 g/dL; this is a frequent calculation on boards.
  16. VMA/HVA vs. Hematuria: Urine catecholamines (VMA) are for Neuroblastoma; Hematuria is for Wilms.
  17. Most Common Malignancy: Leukemia is #1 overall; Brain Tumors are #2 overall; Neuroblastoma is the #1 extracranial solid tumor.
  18. Age-Specific Findings: If a mass is found in a neonate, it is likely a congenital malformation; if found at age 2, it is likely Wilms.
  19. Pancytopenia in Solid Tumors: In Neuroblastoma, 75% are metastatic at diagnosis, often involving the bone marrow, causing pancytopenia similar to leukemia.
  20. Parinaud Syndrome pupil: In Pineal tumors, the pupil reacts to accommodation but not to light (Pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupil).

QA

text | Count | Question | Answer | | :--- | :--- | :--- | | I. | PEDIATRIC ABDOMINAL AND SOLID TUMORS | | | 1 | What is the origin of Neuroblastoma? | Sympathetic chain/adrenal medulla | | 2 | What is the origin of Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)? | Embryonic renal precursor cells | | 3 | What is the origin of Hepatoblastoma? | Precursors of hepatocytes | | 4 | What are the origins of Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? | Gonads or Midline structures | | 5 | What is the peak age for Neuroblastoma? | Infants <1 year
75% are <4 years old. | | 6 | What is the peak age for Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)? | 2-3 years old
80% are <5 years old. | | 7 | What is the peak age for Hepatoblastoma? | Mean age 1 year
80% are <3 years old. | | 8 | What is the peak age for Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? | Bimodal
Infancy and adolescence. | | 9 | List common signs/symptoms (5): Neuroblastoma | 1) Pain
2) Raccoon eyes
3) SubQ nodules
4) weight loss
5) Opsoclonus-myoclonus | | 10 | List common signs/symptoms (3): Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma) | 1) Asymptomatic flank mass
2) HTN
3) hematuria | | 11 | List common signs/symptoms (3): Hepatoblastoma | 1) Asymptomatic mass
2) anorexia
3) weight loss | | 12 | List common signs/symptoms (2): Germ Cell Tumors (GCT) | 1) Midline mass
2) precocious puberty (if HCG+) | | 13 | Describe key imaging findings (3): Neuroblastoma | 1) Heterogeneous mass
2) Crossing midline
3) calcifications/hemorrhage | | 14 | Describe key imaging findings (2): Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma) | 1) "Claw sign"
2) Does NOT cross midline | | 15 | Describe key imaging finding: Hepatoblastoma | Solid liver mass | | 16 | Describe key imaging locations (2): Germ Cell Tumors (GCT) | 1) Sacrococcygeal
2) Mediastinal | | 17 | What are the diagnostic tumor markers: Neuroblastoma | Urine VMA and HVA | | 18 | What specific tumor marker is used for Wilms Tumor? | None specific | | 19 | What are the hallmark markers/labs (2): Hepatoblastoma | 1) High AFP
2) Thrombocytosis | | 20 | What tumor markers are used for Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? (2) | 1) AFP (Yolk sac)
2) B-HCG (Choriocarcinoma) | | 21 | Describe the pathology findings (2): Neuroblastoma | 1) Small round blue cells
2) Rosettes | | 22 | Describe the triphasic histology of Wilms Tumor: (3) | Blastemal, stromal, epithelial | | 23 | Describe the histology of Hepatoblastoma: (2) | Epithelial or Mixed | | 24 | List the pathologic types of Germ Cell Tumors (GCT): (4) | 1) Teratomas
2) Germinomas
3) Yolk Sac
4) Choriocarcinoma | | 25 | What is the management for Neuroblastoma? (4) | Surgery, Chemo, Radiation, Stem cell rescue | | 26 | What is the management for Wilms Tumor? (2) | Upfront surgery or Pre-op chemo | | 27 | What is the management for Hepatoblastoma? (3) | Complete resection, Chemo, Transplant | | 28 | What is the management for Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? (2) | Surgical excision + Chemotherapy | | 29 | What is the most important factor for narrowing differentials in pediatric abdominal masses? | Age | | 30 | Differentials for pediatric abdominal masses: Neonates | Congenital malformations | | 31 | Differentials for pediatric abdominal masses: Children 1-5 years | Wilms or Neuroblastoma | | 32 | Differentials for pediatric abdominal masses: Adolescents | Lymphoma or germ cell tumors | | 33 | What differential must be considered for adolescent females with abdominal masses? | Pregnancy | | 34 | How are most pediatric abdominal malignancies discovered? | Accidentally | | 35 | What lab finding in a liver mass child is a hallmark of Hepatoblastoma? | Thrombocytosis
Due to tumor production of thrombopoietin. | | 36 | What causes "raccoon eyes" in Neuroblastoma? | Tumor infiltration
Of the skull or orbital bones. | | 37 | List the components of Horner’s Syndrome in Neuroblastoma: (4) | Meiosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, anhidrosis | | 38 | What does Horner's Syndrome indicate in Neuroblastoma? | Cervical sympathetic chain involvement | | 39 | List syndromes associated with Wilms Tumor: (3) | 1) WAGR
2) Denys-Drash
3) Beckwith-Wiedemann | | 40 | Why is biopsy contraindicated in Wilms Tumor? | Tumor seeding
Leads to upstaging of the disease. | | 41 | What drives Hypertension in Wilms Tumor? | 1) Renin production
2) Renal artery obstruction | | 42 | Define Stage MS Neuroblastoma: | Metastasis confined to skin/liver/marrow | | 43 | List malignancies associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome: (3) | Wilms, Hepatoblastoma, Adrenal Carcinoma | | 44 | What tumor is specifically associated with Klinefelter Syndrome? | Mediastinal Germ Cell Tumor | | 45 | Until what age do AFP levels normally remain high in infants? | 8 months of age | | II. | BRAIN TUMORS, BONE TUMORS, AND RETINOBLASTOMA | | | 46 | What is the incidence rank of Brain Tumors in pediatric cancer? | 2nd most common | | 47 | What is the incidence of Retinoblastoma? | Most common intraocular tumor | | 48 | What is the incidence of Osteosarcoma (OS)? | Most common bone tumor | | 49 | What is the incidence rank of Ewing Sarcoma (EWS)? | 2nd most common bone tumor | | 50 | List key findings (3): Brain Tumors (General) | 1) Morning headache
2) vomiting
3) papilledema | | 51 | List key findings (2): Retinoblastoma | 1) Leukocoria (white reflex)
2) Strabismus | | 52 | Describe findings for Osteosarcoma (OS): (2) | 1) Bone pain
2) Metaphysis swelling | | 53 | Describe findings for Ewing Sarcoma (EWS): (2) | 1) Bone pain
2) Diaphysis swelling | | 54 | What is the standard imaging for Brain Tumors? | MRI with Gadolinium | | 55 | Describe imaging for Retinoblastoma: | Chalky white-gray retinal mass | | 56 | Describe imaging for Osteosarcoma (OS): (2) | 1) "Sunburst" pattern
2) Codman triangle | | 57 | Describe imaging for Ewing Sarcoma (EWS): | "Onion-skinning" (periosteal reaction) | | 58 | What defines the pathology of Retinoblastoma? (2) | 1) Small round blue cells
2) Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes | | 59 | What defines the pathology of Osteosarcoma (OS)? | Malignant osteoid production | | 60 | What defines the pathology of Ewing Sarcoma (EWS)? | Small round blue cells (PAS+) | | 61 | What procedure is strictly contraindicated in Retinoblastoma? | Biopsy | | 62 | Typical location of Brain tumor: 1st year of life | Supratentorial | | 63 | Typical location of Brain tumor: 1-10 years old | Infratentorial (e.g., Medulloblastoma) | | 64 | Typical location of Brain tumor: After age 10 | Supratentorial | | 65 | List the features of Parinaud Syndrome: (2) | 1) Upward gaze palsy
2) light-near dissociation | | 66 | Parinaud Syndrome is a hallmark of tumors in what region? | Pineal region | | 67 | Describe Diencephalic Syndrome features: (2) | 1) Failure to thrive
2) Emaciation | | 68 | Diencephalic Syndrome is seen in tumors of what regions? | Suprasellar/third ventricular regions | | 69 | Retinoblastoma survivors have an increased risk of what later in life? | Osteosarcoma | | 70 | What is the most common pediatric soft tissue sarcoma? | Rhabdomyosarcoma | | 71 | Identify IHC markers (2) for Rhabdomyosarcoma: | 1) Desmin
2) myogenin | | 72 | Describe Botryoid Rhabdomyosarcoma: | "Bunch of grapes" appearance | | 73 | Which histology of Rhabdomyosarcoma has the poorest prognosis? | Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma | | 74 | What transcript is associated with Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma? | PAX-FOXO1 transcript | | III. | PEDIATRIC BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS | | | 75 | What is the dose of PRBC (Red Cells)? | 10 - 15 mL/kg | | 76 | What is the dose of Platelets? | 5 - 10 mL/kg | | 77 | What is the dose of FFP (Plasma)? | 10 - 15 mL/kg | | 78 | What is the effect of PRBC (Red Cells) at 10 mL/kg? | Raises Hb by 2 g/dL | | 79 | What is the transfusion trigger for PRBC (Red Cells) if stable? | Hb <7 g/dL | | 80 | Identify triggers (3) for Platelet transfusion: | 1) <10k stable
2) <20k sepsis
3) <50k surgery | | 81 | What is the trigger for FFP (Plasma) transfusion? | Bleeding + PT/PTT >1.5x normal | | 82 | Define the 30-minute rule for RBC units: | Cannot be returned to storage | | 83 | Define the 4-hour rule for blood transfusion: | Must be completed within 4 hours | | 84 | What is the only compatible IV fluid for pediatric blood transfusion? | 0.9% Normal Saline | | 85 | Define Febrile Non-hemolytic Transfusion Reaction: | Temperature rise >1°C | | 86 | Emergency Release of Blood: Which types for unknown groups? | Type O RBCs; Type AB Platelets | | 87 | Define Pediatric Massive Transfusion: | Replacing >100% volume in 24 hours | | 88 | Why is routine premedication for blood transfusion considered poor practice? | Evidence suggests it is ineffective prophylaxis | | 89 | Platelet threshold for Lumbar Puncture in Hema-Onco? | 20k-40k/uL | | 90 | Policy for Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) transfusion: | Never withhold if life-threatening | | IV. | DIFFERENTIATING CLINICAL PEARLS | | | 91 | Neuroblastoma vs. Wilms Tumor location: | Neuroblastoma crosses midline; Wilms renal flank | | 92 | Osteosarcoma vs. Ewing Sarcoma pattern: | Osteosarcoma sunburst; Ewing onion-skinning | | 93 | ALL: Criteria for Standard risk (2) | 1) Age 1-10 years
2) WBC <50,000 | | 94 | AFP vs. B-HCG: Which tumor marker for Yolk Sac? | AFP | | 95 | Supratentorial vs. Infratentorial: Dominant age 1-10 years | Infratentorial | | 96 | Small Round Blue Cells: List examples (4) | Neuroblastoma, Ewing, Rhabdo, Retino | | 97 | Abdominal mass + thrombocytosis suggests: | Hepatoblastoma | | 98 | Status of AFP/HCG in Teratomas and Germinomas: | Typically normal | | 99 | What finding is specific for Wilms Tumor imaging? | Claw Sign | | 100 | What is the significance of Leukocoria in pediatric oncology? | Retinoblastoma until proven otherwise | | 101 | Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Neuroblastoma: | Opsoclonus-Myoclonus ("Dancing Eyes/Feet") | | 102 | Primary cause of hypertension in Wilms Tumor: | Renin elevation | | 103 | What does the "A" stand for in WAGR Syndrome? | Aniridia (absence of iris) | | 104 | Pediatric mass described as a "bunch of grapes": | Botryoid Rhabdomyosarcoma | | 105 | Formula for PRBC Volume Calculation effect: | 10 mL/kg raises Hb by 2 g/dL | | 106 | VMA/HVA vs. Hematuria: Which points to Wilms? | Hematuria | | 107 | What is the #1 extracranial solid tumor? | Neuroblastoma | | 108 | If an abdominal mass is found in a neonate, it is likely: | Congenital malformation | | 109 | Reason for pancytopenia in Neuroblastoma: | Bone marrow infiltration | | 110 | Describe the pupil in Parinaud Syndrome: | Pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupil
Reacts to accommodation, not to light. |

5.5 - Pediatric Resuscitation

Summary

text

SYSTEMATIC APPROACH TO PEDIATRIC CRITICAL CARE

TopicKey Information
Main GoalCardiopulmonary arrest prevention is the primary objective when assessing a critically ill or injured child.
Common EtiologyIn pediatrics, the most common cause of cardiac arrest is secondary to pulmonary or respiratory causes.
MethodologyThe systematic approach is a continuous sequence consisting of evaluation, assessment, and management (the RARARA cycle: reassess, assess, reassess).
Sequence of DeteriorationEarly recognition is vital because pediatric conditions often transition from reversible to irreversible states if not treated promptly.
Objective DataInitial findings that serve as a baseline for stabilization include vital signs, urine output, and sensorium.

ASSESSMENT TOOLS (INITIAL, PRIMARY, SECONDARY, TERTIARY)

TopicComponent / MnemonicDefinition and Details
Initial AssessmentABCA visual and auditory tool used in the first few seconds to assess Appearance (consciousness), Breathing (effort/sounds), and Color (pink, pale, mottled, cyanotic).
Primary AssessmentABCDEA detailed evaluation of Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure.
Secondary AssessmentS-A-M-P-L-EFocuses on a resuscitation-oriented history: Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, and Events preceding illness.
Tertiary AssessmentDiagnosticsIncludes Laboratory tests, Radiologic imaging, and other specialized diagnostics to confirm the working impression.

PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: AIRWAY AND BREATHING DETAILS

Condition typePhysical Findings
Upper Airway Obstruction (UAO)Characterized by stridor; common causes include Croup, Epiglottitis, or foreign body.
Lower Airway Obstruction (LAO)Characterized by wheezing; common causes include Asthma and Bronchiolitis.
Lung Parenchymal Disease (LPD)Characterized by crackles (rales); common causes include Pneumonia and Pulmonary Edema.
Disordered Control of Breathing (DCB)Characterized by abnormal breathing patterns or no breath sounds due to neurologic issues like TBI, GBS, or drug overdose.
  • An Airway is classified as Clear (no intervention), Maintainable (needs positioning/suctioning), or Unmaintainable (needs intubation).
  • The minimum parameters for Breathing assessment are:
    1. Rate of breathing
    2. Effort of breathing
    3. Air entry/Breath sounds
    4. Oxygen saturation
  • In Respiratory Distress, signs include increased work of breathing, nasal flaring, head bobbing, grunting, and retractions.
  • Respiratory Failure occurs when the body's metabolic demand for oxygen is not met by breathing, eventually leading to respiratory arrest.

PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: CIRCULATION, DISABILITY, AND EXPOSURE

SystemParameters / ScaleKey Diagnostic Points
Circulation5 MinimumsIncludes Heart rate, Blood pressure, Central/Peripheral pulses, Capillary refill time (CRT), and Urine output.
DisabilityAVPUMeasures level of consciousness: Alert, Responds to Voice, Responds to Pain, or Unconscious.
DisabilityHGT/GlucoseBlood sugar check is a mandatory part of assessing neurologic disability in a critical child.
ExposureVisual SurveyImmediate check for Fever (>37.8 C), Rashes, or Bruises.
  • Compensated Shock manifests with signs of poor perfusion (tachycardia, delayed CRT) but maintaining a normal systolic BP for age.
  • Hypotensive Shock is characterized by impaired perfusion and a systolic BP below the lower limit for age.

MANAGEMENT OF RESPIRATORY DISTRESS AND FAILURE

Device / InterventionSpecificationDetails
Oxygen: Nasal Cannula0.25 – 4 L/minUsed for mild oxygen requirements.
Oxygen: Simple Mask5 – 10 L/minModerate delivery of FiO2.
Oxygen: Non-Rebreathing Mask11 – 15 L/minHighest FiO2 for non-invasive delivery; used in shock or severe distress.
Maneuver: Head Tilt-Chin LiftNon-TraumaPreferred for opening the airway in victims without suspected cervical spine injury.
Maneuver: Jaw ThrustTraumaMandatory for opening the airway when cervical spine injury is suspected.
Rescue BreathsRateGive 20 to 30 breaths per minute (1 breath every 2-3 seconds) for a child with a pulse but inadequate breathing.
  • The Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA) is used ONLY for unconscious patients without a gag reflex; size is measured from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible.
  • The Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA) is for conscious or semi-conscious patients with a gag reflex; size is measured from the tragus of the ear to the tip of the nose.
  • NPA Contraindications include basal skull fractures (potential cranial entry) or coagulation defects.
  • The “C-E” grip is the standard technique for Bag-Mask Ventilation (BMV) to ensure a tight seal and jaw lift.
  • In Bag-Mask Ventilation, the bag should only be squeezed enough to see chest rise; over-squeezing can cause barotrauma (pneumothorax).

ENDOTRACHEAL INTUBATION (ETT)

  • Endotracheal Intubation is the most secure airway method; indications include GCS < 8, failure to oxygenate/ventilate, or anticipatory (e.g., GBS).
  • The SOAP MM mnemonic for intubation preparation stands for:
    1. Suction
    2. Oxygen
    3. Airway (equipment/size)
    4. People
    5. Monitor
    6. Medications
  • The Formula for Cuffed ETT size is (Age in Years / 4) + 3.5.
  • The Formula for Uncuffed ETT size is (Age in Years / 4) + 4.
  • The Estimated ETT Depth (lip-to-tip) is calculated as ETT Size x 3.
  • The DOPE Mnemonic is used to troubleshoot sudden deterioration in an intubated patient:
    • D: Displacement
    • O: Obstruction
    • P: Pneumothorax
    • E: Equipment failure

SHOCK: TYPES AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

Type of ShockPrimary ProblemCommon Causes/Etiologies
Hypovolemic ShockInadequate blood/fluid volumeAGE (vomiting/diarrhea), hemorrhage, Nephrotic syndrome.
Distributive ShockInappropriate distribution (vasodilation)Sepsis, Anaphylaxis, Neurogenic shock, Drug overdose.
Cardiogenic ShockImpaired cardiac contractilityCHD, Arrhythmias, Myocarditis, RHD.
Obstructive ShockObstructed blood flowTension pneumothorax, Cardiac tamponade, Aortic stenosis.
  • The earliest compensatory mechanism for decreased cardiac output in shock is Tachycardia.
  • Septic Shock is unique as it encompasses three shock types: hypovolemic (capillary leak), distributive (vasodilation via NO), and cardiogenic (inflammatory depression of contractility).
  • Shock Physiology involves the equation: Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output x Systemic Vascular Resistance.
  • In Dissociative Shock (e.g., CO poisoning), O2 delivery is impaired because O2 cannot be released from hemoglobin to tissues, despite normal circulation.

MANAGEMENT OF SEPTIC SHOCK (TIME-SENSITIVE)

  • Initial Fluid Bolus in Shock is 10-20 cc/kg given over 15 to 20 minutes.
  • The Preferred Fluid Order for shock resuscitation is:
    1. Sterofundin (Isotonic electrolyte solution)
    2. Acetated Ringer's (Buffer usable directly)
    3. Lactated Ringer's (Liver must process buffer)
    4. NSS (Risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis)
  • If IV access cannot be established within the first 90 seconds, an Intraosseous (IO) line should be inserted immediately.
  • Signs of Fluid Overload/Congestion to monitor during resuscitation include new-onset crackles, hepatomegaly, and edema.
  • Inotropes (Epinephrine/Norepinephrine) are indicated if the patient remains in shock after 3 fluid boluses (fluid-resistant shock).
  • Hydrocortisone (5mg/kg) is used in catecholamine-resistant shock to treat potential adrenal crisis/insufficiency.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS AND COMPARISONS

  1. Upper vs. Lower Airway Obstruction: Upper presents with stridor (inspiratory), while Lower presents with wheezing (expiratory).
  2. Compensated vs. Hypotensive Shock: Compensated has Normal SBP, whereas Hypotensive has Low SBP; both show poor perfusion signs (tachycardia, delayed CRT).
  3. OPA vs. NPA: OPA is for patients WITHOUT a gag reflex; NPA is for patients WITH a gag reflex.
  4. Head Tilt-Chin Lift vs. Jaw Thrust: Head Tilt is for medical cases; Jaw Thrust is for suspected Trauma/C-spine injuries.
  5. Cuffed vs. Uncuffed ETT: Cuffed is now generally recommended to prevent air leaks and ensure better ventilation; Uncuffed size formula adds +4 to age/4 while Cuffed adds +3.5.
  6. Hypovolemic vs. Distributive Shock Preload: In Hypovolemic, preload is low due to loss of volume; in Distributive, preload is low due to "relative" hypovolemia from massive vasodilation.
  7. Respiratory Distress vs. Failure: Distress includes increased effort (tachypnea, flaring); Failure includes inadequate gas exchange (hypoxemia, hypercarbia) and can lead to gasping or agonal breathing.
  8. LR vs. AR Fluids: Acetated Ringer's is preferred in shock because the buffer is used directly; Lactated Ringer's requires liver perfusion to convert lactate to bicarbonate.
  9. Cardiac Arrest Etiology (Adult vs. Peds): Pediatric arrest is usually Respiratory/Secondary; Adult arrest is usually Sudden Cardiac/Primary.
  10. Displacement (D) vs. Obstruction (O) in DOPE: Displacement is the tube moving out (check with breath sounds/XR); Obstruction is the tube blocked by secretions or biting (check with suction catheter).
  11. Pneumothorax vs. Ventilator Failure in DOPE: Pneumothorax results in deterioration regardless of bagging/ventilator; Ventilator Failure shows improvement when switched from the machine to manual bagging.
  12. Normal SBP Calculation (1-10 years): Calculated as (Age x 2) + 70; anything below this is hypotensive.
  13. LPD vs. DCB Auscultation: Lung Parenchymal Disease has crackles/rales; Disordered Control of Breathing may have entirely absent or irregular breath sounds.
  14. Septic Shock vs. Other Distributive Shocks: Sepsis typically presents with a history of fever/infection, whereas Anaphylaxis presents with allergen exposure and Neurogenic with trauma history.
  15. Preload vs. Afterload Manipulation: Fluid boluses increase Preload; Vasopressors (like Epinephrine) increase Afterload via vasoconstriction.
  16. Pneumothorax vs. Gastric Distension: Pneumothorax shows decreased breath sounds and hyper-resonance; Gastric Distension (from ETT in esophagus) shows gurgling in the stomach and abdominal swelling.
  17. Inotropes vs. Steroids in Shock: Inotropes (Epi) increase contractility/tone directly; Steroids (Hydrocortisone) are given if inotropes fail to address potential adrenal insufficiency.
  18. Nasal Cannula vs. NRM Flow: Cannula is low flow (max 4L); NRM is high flow (requires 11-15L to keep reservoir bag inflated).
  19. Initial vs. Primary Assessment: Initial is a "first-look" (ABC only); Primary is a hands-on examination (ABCDE with vitals).
  20. Tachycardia Interpretation: Tachycardia is the first sign of compensation in shock but must be differentiated from pain, fever, or medication effects (e.g., Albuterol).

QA

text

SYSTEMATIC APPROACH TO PEDIATRIC CRITICAL CARE

CountQA
1What is the primary objective of the Systematic Approach to Pediatric Critical Care?Cardiopulmonary arrest prevention
2What is the Common Etiology for pediatric cardiac arrest?Pulmonary or respiratory causes
3Define the RARARA cycle in the Methodology of pediatric care.Reassess, assess, reassess
4Why is early recognition vital in the pediatric Sequence of Deterioration?Conditions transition from reversible to irreversible
5What are the Objective Data points used as a baseline for stabilization? (3)Vital signs,
Urine output,
Sensorium

ASSESSMENT TOOLS (INITIAL, PRIMARY, SECONDARY, TERTIARY)

CountQA
6Describe the components of the visual/auditory Initial Assessment. (3)Appearance,
Breathing,
Color
7What is evaluated in the Primary Assessment mnemonic ABCDE? (5)Airway,
Breathing,
Circulation,
Disability,
Exposure
8Define the Secondary Assessment mnemonic S-A-M-P-L-E. (6)Signs/Symptoms,
Allergies,
Medications,
Past medical history,
Last meal,
Events
9What does the Tertiary Assessment consist of?Laboratory and radiologic diagnostics
10In the Initial Assessment, what specific colors are evaluated? (4)Pink,
pale,
mottled,
cyanotic

PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: AIRWAY AND BREATHING DETAILS

CountQA
11What finding characterizes Upper Airway Obstruction (UAO)?Stridor
12Identify common causes of Upper Airway Obstruction (UAO). (3)Croup,
Epiglottitis,
Foreign body
13What finding characterizes Lower Airway Obstruction (LAO)?Wheezing
14Identify common causes of Lower Airway Obstruction (LAO). (2)Asthma,
Bronchiolitis
15What finding characterizes Lung Parenchymal Disease (LPD)?Crackles (rales)
16Identify common causes of Lung Parenchymal Disease (LPD). (2)Pneumonia,
Pulmonary Edema
17What findings characterize Disordered Control of Breathing (DCB)?Abnormal patterns or no breath sounds
18Identify common causes of Disordered Control of Breathing (DCB). (3)TBI,
GBS,
Drug overdose
19How is a Maintainable Airway defined?Needs positioning or suctioning
20How is an Unmaintainable Airway defined?Needs intubation
21List the minimum parameters for Breathing assessment. (4)Rate,
Effort,
Air entry,
Oxygen saturation
22Identify assessment signs of Respiratory Distress. (5)Nasal flaring,
Head bobbing,
Grunting,
Retractions,
Increased work
23Define Respiratory Failure.Oxygen metabolic demand not met
24What is the eventual result of untreated Respiratory Failure?Respiratory arrest
25In Breathing assessment, what does air entry refer to?Breath sounds

PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: CIRCULATION, DISABILITY, AND EXPOSURE

CountQA
26List the 5 Minimums for Circulation assessment.Heart rate,
Blood pressure,
Pulses,
Capillary refill,
Urine output
27Define the AVPU scale components for Disability. (4)Alert,
Voice,
Pain,
Unconscious
28What is a mandatory part of Neurologic Disability assessment besides AVPU?Blood sugar (HGT/Glucose)
29What is checked during the visual survey for Exposure? (3)Fever,
Rashes,
Bruises
30Define Compensated Shock based on perfusion and BP.Poor perfusion,
Normal systolic BP
31Define Hypotensive Shock based on BP.Systolic BP below lower limit
32What temperature indicates Fever in the Exposure assessment?>37.8 C
33In Circulation 5 Minimums, what pulses should be checked?Central and peripheral pulses
34What does CRT stand for in circulation assessment?Capillary refill time
35Why is HGT/Glucose mandatory in critical care assessment?Assesses neurologic disability

MANAGEMENT OF RESPIRATORY DISTRESS AND FAILURE

CountQA
36What is the flow rate for Nasal Cannula oxygen delivery?0.25 – 4 L/min
37What is the flow rate for Simple Mask oxygen delivery?5 – 10 L/min
38What is the flow rate for Non-Rebreathing Mask oxygen delivery?11 – 15 L/min
39Which oxygen device provides the Highest FiO2 non-invasively?Non-Rebreathing Mask
40When is the Head Tilt-Chin Lift maneuver preferred?Non-Trauma cases
41When is the Jaw Thrust maneuver mandatory?Suspected cervical spine injury
42What is the recommended Rescue Breath Rate for a child with a pulse?20 to 30 breaths per minute
43What is the timing for Rescue Breaths in pediatrics?1 breath every 2-3 seconds
44Define Airway Management in trauma.Jaw Thrust maneuver
45What is the indication for Simple Mask usage?Moderate FiO2 requirements

AIRWAY ADJUNCTS AND VENTILATION

CountQA
46What is the primary indication for using an Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA)?Unconscious without gag reflex
47How is the OPA size measured?Mouth corner to mandible angle
48What is the primary indication for a Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA)?Conscious/semi-conscious with gag reflex
49How is the NPA size measured?Ear tragus to nose tip
50List 2 contraindications for NPA insertion.Basal skull fracture,
coagulation defects
51What is the purpose of the C-E grip technique?Tight seal and jaw lift
52During Bag-Mask Ventilation (BMV), how much should the bag be squeezed?Enough to see chest rise
53What is a complication of BMV over-squeezing?Barotrauma (pneumothorax)
54Name the standard technique for Bag-Mask Ventilation.C-E grip
55Why is OPA contraindicated in conscious patients?Presence of gag reflex

ENDOTRACHEAL INTUBATION (ETT)

CountQA
56What are the clinical indications for Endotracheal Intubation? (3)GCS < 8,
Oxygenation/ventilation failure,
Anticipatory
57List the components of the SOAP MM mnemonic. (6)Suction,
Oxygen,
Airway,
People,
Monitor,
Medications
58What is the Cuffed ETT size formula?(Age in Years / 4) + 3.5
59What is the Uncuffed ETT size formula?(Age in Years / 4) + 4
60How is the Estimated ETT Depth (lip-to-tip) calculated?ETT Size x 3
61What does DOPE stand for in ETT troubleshooting? (4)Displacement,
Obstruction,
Pneumothorax,
Equipment failure
62In DOPE, how is Displacement (D) verified?Breath sounds or X-ray
63In DOPE, how is Obstruction (O) checked?Suction catheter
64In DOPE, how is Equipment failure (E) identified?Improved status after manual bagging
65Define the most secure Airway method.Endotracheal Intubation

SHOCK: TYPES AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY

CountQA
66What is the primary problem in Hypovolemic Shock?Inadequate blood/fluid volume
67List common causes of Hypovolemic Shock. (3)Hemorrhage,
AGE (vomiting/diarrhea),
Nephrotic syndrome
68What is the primary problem in Distributive Shock?Vasodilation (inappropriate distribution)
69List common causes of Distributive Shock. (4)Sepsis,
Anaphylaxis,
Neurogenic,
Drug overdose
70What is the primary problem in Cardiogenic Shock?Impaired cardiac contractility
71List common causes of Cardiogenic Shock. (4)CHD,
Arrhythmias,
Myocarditis,
RHD
72What is the primary problem in Obstructive Shock?Obstructed blood flow
73List common causes of Obstructive Shock. (3)Tension pneumothorax,
Cardiac tamponade,
Aortic stenosis
74What is the earliest compensatory mechanism for decreased output in shock?Tachycardia
75Why is Septic Shock unique?Combines hypovolemic, distributive, cardiogenic
76Define the Shock Physiology equation.BP = CO x SVR
77Define Dissociative Shock pathophysiology.O2 cannot release from hemoglobin

MANAGEMENT OF SEPTIC SHOCK (TIME-SENSITIVE)

CountQA
78What is the amount/time for the Initial Fluid Bolus in Shock?10-20 cc/kg over 15-20 mins
79Rank the Preferred Fluid Order for shock resuscitation. (4)Sterofundin, AR, LR, NSS
80Why is Acetated Ringer's (AR) preferred over LR?Buffer usable directly
81When should an Intraosseous (IO) line be inserted?IV access fails (90 seconds)
82List signs of Fluid Overload/Congestion. (3)Crackles,
Hepatomegaly,
Edema
83When are Inotropes (Epi/Norepi) indicated in shock?Fluid-resistant shock (3 boluses)
84What is the dose for Hydrocortisone in catecholamine-resistant shock?5mg/kg
85Why is NSS fourth in fluid preference for shock?Risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS AND COMPARISONS

CountQA
86Compare Upper vs. Lower Airway Obstruction findings.Upper: Stridor; Lower: Wheezing
87Compare Compensated vs. Hypotensive Shock BP.Compensated: Normal SBP; Hypotensive: Low SBP
88Compare OPA vs. NPA patient status.OPA: No gag; NPA: Has gag
89Compare Head Tilt-Chin Lift vs. Jaw Thrust use.Head Tilt: Medical; Jaw Thrust: Trauma
90Compare Cuffed vs. Uncuffed ETT recommendations.Cuffed: prevents leaks/better ventilation
91Compare Hypovolemic vs. Distributive Shock preload.Hypovolemic: Volume loss; Distributive: Relative hypovolemia
92Compare Respiratory Distress vs. Failure effort.Distress: Increased effort; Failure: Inadequate gas exchange
93Compare LR vs. AR Fluids buffer processing.AR: Used directly; LR: Needs liver perfusion
94Compare Cardiac Arrest Etiology in adults vs. peds.Adults: Primary/Cardiac; Peds: Secondary/Respiratory
95Compare Displacement (D) vs. Obstruction (O) in DOPE.D: Tube out; O: Tube blocked
96Compare Pneumothorax vs. Ventilator Failure in DOPE.Pneumothorax: Deteriorates; Failure: Improves with bagging
97What is the Normal SBP Calculation for ages 1-10?(Age x 2) + 70
98Compare LPD vs. DCB Auscultation.LPD: Crackles; DCB: Absent/Irregular sounds
99Compare Septic Shock vs. Other Distributive Shocks history.Sepsis: Fever/Infection; Anaphylaxis: Allergen; Neurogenic: Trauma
100Compare Preload vs. Afterload Manipulation instruments.Bolus: Preload; Vasopressors: Afterload
101Compare Pneumothorax vs. Gastric Distension signs.Pneumo: Hyper-resonance; Gastric: Gurgling/swelling
102Compare Inotropes vs. Steroids function in shock.Inotropes: Contractility; Steroids: Adrenal insufficiency
103Compare Nasal Cannula vs. NRM Flow limits.Cannula: Max 4L; NRM: 11-15L
104Compare Initial vs. Primary Assessment scope.Initial: First-look; Primary: Hands-on/Vitals
105How must Tachycardia Interpretation be differentiated?From pain, fever, or medications

5.6 - Neurologic Emergencies and Stabilization

Summary

RAPID SEQUENCE INTUBATION (RSI) AND AIRWAY MANAGEMENT

FeatureDetails
Most Important PartPreparation of materials (Lecturer emphasis).
Indications1. Unable to maintain airway patency or protect against aspiration. 2. Failure to maintain adequate oxygenation. 3. Failure to control blood CO2 levels. 4. Sedation/paralysis required for a procedure. 5. Anticipated deteriorating course.
Absolute ContraindicationKnown complete airway obstruction (e.g., severe subglottic stenosis); requires emergency cricothyroidotomy or tracheostomy.
Difficult Airway PredictorsLimited mouth opening, limited neck mobility, micrognathia (small jaw), short neck, or history of difficult intubation.
Preoxygenation GoalMaintain O2 saturation >95% using 100% FiO2 for 3 mins (spontaneous) or bag-mask (apneic).
Anatomical PositioningSniffing position (supine); in infants/neonates, place a cloth behind shoulders to prevent head flexion due to the large occiput.

PHARMACOLOGY OF RSI

Drug CategoryAgentKey Flashcard Facts
PretreatmentAtropineGiven to blunt the vagal reflex (bradycardia) and reduce airway secretions; recommended for children ≤1yr, or <5yrs if receiving succinylcholine.
PretreatmentLidocaineGiven to minimize sudden increases in Intracranial Pressure (ICP) during intubation.
Induction (Sedative)EtomidateSafe for hemodynamic instability; neuroprotective; do NOT use routinely in septic shock (causes transient adrenal suppression).
Induction (Sedative)KetamineDOC for asthma/bronchospasm; hemodynamically stable (better for shock than midazolam); may increase oral secretions.
Induction (Sedative)PropofolCauses hypotension (avoid in shock); useful for status epilepticus or stable patients with neuro problems.
Induction (Sedative)MidazolamBenzodiazepine of choice; may cause hypotension; onset takes 2-3 minutes.
AnalgesiaFentanylMost common analgesic; SE include respiratory depression and chest wall rigidity (if given too fast).
ParalyticRocuroniumDOC for muscle relaxation; ensures rapid paralysis; must insert tube immediately as breathing stops.
ParalyticSuccinylcholineRapid onset; Contraindicated in: hyperkalemia, burns/crush injuries (after 48-72h), malignant hyperthermia, and chronic muscle disease (Duchenne/Becker).
  • Atropine is used in Rapid Sequence Intubation to prevent bradycardia and decrease secretions which might obstruct the airway.
  • Lidocaine is administered during Intubation to prevent the patient from straining, which would otherwise increase intracranial pressure and risk herniation.
  • The Sniffing Position is the gold standard for patient alignment during intubation, often requiring a shoulder roll in infants to compensate for a prominent occiput.
  • The Sellick Maneuver involves applying pressure to the cricoid cartilage to visualize the glottis or prevent aspiration; it is NOT a routine maneuver and is used only if visualization is difficult.
  • Straight blades (Miller) are typically used in pediatric intubation to address the floppy epiglottis, while curved blades (Macintosh) are more common in adults.
  • Confirmation of Endotracheal Tube (ETT) placement is achieved via auscultation, observation of chest rise, vital sign monitoring, and ultimately a chest X-ray.

INTRAOSSEOUS (IO) CANNULATION

FeatureDetails
MechanismAccesses non-collapsible medullary sinuses in long bones that drain into the central circulation.
IndicationsEmergency vascular access if IV line cannot be established within 90 seconds in shock.
Most Common SiteProximal Tibia (1-2 cm medial and distal to the tibial tuberosity).
Absolute CIFractured bone, previously penetrated bone (on the same site), or vascular interruption in the extremity.
Relative CICellulitis/burns at site, Osteogenesis Imperfecta (fragility), or right-to-left intracardiac shunts (embolism risk).
  • Intraosseous (IO) access allows for the administration of any IV drug, resuscitation fluids, and even obtaining marrow for lab studies (electrolytes, ABG, cultures).
  • Technique for IO Cannulation involves directing the needle caudad (10-15 degrees away from the growth plate) using a twisting motion until a "pop" or decrease in resistance is felt.
  • Confirmation of IO needle placement is definitive if the needle stands firmly on its own, bone marrow is aspirated, and fluid flushes easily without subcutaneous swelling.
  • Compartment Syndrome is a potential complication of IO access caused by the extravasation of fluids into the subcutaneous tissue.
  • Fat emboli are a rare risk of IO access; practitioners are advised not to push aspirated marrow back into the cavity.

NEUROLOGIC EMERGENCIES AND TBI

TopicKey Facts
DynamicsCPP = MAP - ICP. Mainstay is preserving nutrient supply (Oxygen/Glucose).
Compensatory Mech1. Displacing CSF to spinal canal. 2. Decreasing cerebral blood volume. 3. Expanding cranial volume (infant sutures).
AutoregulationCBF remains constant despite BP changes until limits are exceeded. Low BP = Max Dilation; High BP = Max Constriction.
Secondary InjuryTargets of neuro-ICU. Includes edema, apoptosis, and ischemia from hypotension/hypoxia following the primary impact.
ICP HallmarkComa (GCS 3-8) is the hallmark of severe TBI. Peak swelling occurs at 48-72 hours.
Herniation Triad(Cushing's) Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations (plus pupillary changes).

TBI MANAGEMENT STRATEGIES

TierInterventions
1st Tier (Basic)Head of bed elevation (midline/30 deg), controlled ventilation (target normal CO2), sedation/analgesia, euvolemia with Normal Saline.
Acute HerniationHyperventilation (urgent/temporary), Hypertonic Saline (3%) (5-10 mL/kg), or Mannitol (0.25-1.0 g/kg).
2nd Tier (Refractory)Decompressive craniectomy, Pentobarbital coma, Mild hypothermia (32-34C - controversial), extreme hyperventilation (PaCO2 25-30).
Supportive CareBMB prophylaxis (Levetiracetam/Fosphenytoin), Avoid glucose >200 mg/dL, Avoid Hypotonic fluids (Target Na 145-155).
  • Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) targets are age-dependent: 50 mmHg (2-6y), 55 mmHg (7-10y), and 65 mmHg (11-16y).
  • Hyperthermia must be avoided in brain injury as it increases cellular metabolic demand and worsens tissue hypoxia.
  • Hypercarbia (High CO2) causes cerebral vasodilation, increasing intracranial blood volume and subsequently increasing ICP.
  • Modified Pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used for children <2 years old to account for non-verbal development scores.
  • Cranial CT Scanning in patients <2 years old (PECARN) is indicated if GCS ≤14, there is altered mental status, or a palpable skull fracture.
  • Cranial CT Scanning in patients ≥2 years old is indicated if GCS ≤14, there is altered mental status, or signs of a basilar skull fracture (Raccoon eyes/Battle sign).
  • Hypertonic Saline (HTS) is often preferred over Mannitol for pediatric cerebral edema as it helps maintain volume while targeting high-normal sodium (145-155).
  • Anticonvulsant prophylaxis (e.g., Levetiracetam) prevents early post-traumatic seizures (within 1 week) but does not prevent late-onset epilepsy.

BASIC LIFE SUPPORT (BLS) AND CPR

ComponentPediatric (Child/Infant) Requirement
SequenceC-A-B (Compressions, Airway, Breathing).
Compression Rate100 - 120 per minute.
Depth (Infant)~4 cm (1/3 AP diameter of chest).
Depth (Child)~5 cm (1/3 AP diameter of chest).
Ratio (1 Rescuer)30:2 (for all ages except neonates).
Ratio (2 Rescuers)15:2 for infants and children.
Pulse Check SiteInfants: Brachial; Children: Carotid or Femoral. (Check for 5-10 seconds).
AED PadsAdult pads for ≥8 years; Pediatric pads preferred for <8 years (but use adult if unavailable).
  • Chest Recoil must be complete between compressions to allow for atrial refilling (diastole).
  • Rescue Breaths should be delivered over 1 second, ensuring visible chest rise while avoiding excessive ventilation (which increases intrathoracic pressure).
  • Jaw-Thrust Maneuver is the mandatory technique for opening the airway in any patient with suspected cervical spine injury.
  • Two Thumb-Encircling Hands Technique is the preferred compression method for infants when there are two rescuers.
  • Gasping is not normal breathing; it is a sign of cardiac arrest and acidosis requiring immediate CPR.
  • AED Analysis: If the rhythm is shockable, clear the patient, deliver the shock, and immediately resume CPR starting with compressions (do not check pulse).
  • Unwitnessed Collapse in children requires the lone rescuer to perform 2 minutes (5 cycles) of CPR before leaving to activate EMS or get an AED.
  • Witnessed Collapse in children allows the lone rescuer to leave immediately to activate EMS/get an AED because the cause is likely a sudden primary cardiac arrhythmia.

DIFFERENTIATION AND COMPARISON FOR EXAMS

  • Etomidate vs. Ketamine: Both are used for hemodynamically unstable patients, but Etomidate is avoided in sepsis (adrenal suppression) while Ketamine is preferred for asthma (bronchodilatory).
  • Succinylcholine vs. Rocuronium: Succinylcholine has a faster/shorter onset but dangerous side effects in hyperkalemic or burned patients; Rocuronium is the safer, non-depolarizing alternative.
  • Head Tilt-Chin Lift vs. Jaw Thrust: Head tilt is standard, but Jaw Thrust must be used if cervical spine injury is suspected to prevent spinal cord damage.
  • Primary vs. Secondary Brain Injury: Primary injury is structural/irreversible damage occurring at impact; Secondary injury is physiological (edema, ischemia) and is the target of medical management.
  • 1-Rescuer vs. 2-Rescuer Peds CPR: The compression-to-breath ratio changes from 30:2 (1-rescuer) to 15:2 (2-rescuer) to prioritize oxygenation in children.
  • Infant vs. Child Pulse Checks: Check the brachial artery in infants (under 1 year) and the carotid/femoral artery in children (>1 year).
  • Mannitol vs. Hypertonic Saline (HTS): HTS acts as a volume expander and is preferred in hypotension; Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that may cause hypovolemia.
  • SIADH vs. Cerebral Salt Wasting (CSW): Both cause hyponatremia after brain injury; SIADH involves fluid retention (euvolemic/hypervolemic), while CSW involves massive sodium loss in urine (hypovolemic).
  • Decorticate vs. Decerebrate Posturing: Both indicate brain injury; Decorticate (flexion) suggests damage above the brainstem, while Decerebrate (extension) indicates a more severe brainstem injury/herniation.
  • Straight vs. Curved Blades: Straight blades (Miller) physically lift the epiglottis (better for peds); Curved blades (Macintosh) are placed in the vallecula to indirectly lift the epiglottis (Standard for adults).
  • Witnessed vs. Unwitnessed Peds Arrest: Witnessed = Get help/AED first. Unwitnessed = Do 2 minutes of CPR first.
  • Normal Ventilation vs. Hyperventilation in TBI: Target normal PaCO2 (35-45) for maintenance; target low PaCO2 (25-30) ONLY as a temporary rescue for acute herniation.
  • Hypoxia vs. Hyperoxia in TBI: Both are harmful; hypoxia starves brain tissue, while hyperoxia produces oxygen radicals that facilitate secondary brain injury.

QA

CountQuestionAnswer
RAPID SEQUENCE INTUBATION (RSI) AND AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
1What is the most important part of Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?Preparation of materials
2What are the five (5) Indications for Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?1) Maintain airway/prevent aspiration
2) Failure of oxygenation
3) Failure of CO2 control
4) Sedation/paralysis for procedure
5) Anticipated deterioration
3What is the Absolute Contraindication for Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?Known complete airway obstruction
4What is the required management for a complete airway obstruction in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?Emergency cricothyroidotomy/tracheostomy
5What are the five (5) Difficult Airway Predictors?1) Limited mouth opening
2) Limited neck mobility
3) Micrognathia (small jaw)
4) Short neck
5) History of difficult intubation
6What is the goal saturation for Preoxygenation in RSI?O2 saturation >95%
7How long should Preoxygenation last for a spontaneous breathing patient?3 minutes
8What anatomical position is the gold standard for Airway Management?Sniffing position
9How are Infants and Neonates positioned for RSI to prevent flexion?Cloth behind shoulders
10Why is a shoulder roll used in Infant Intubation?Large occiput
11What is the purpose of Atropine pretreatment in RSI?Blunt vagal reflex (bradycardia)
12What are the two (2) clinical effects of Atropine in airway management?1) Prevents bradycardia
2) Reduces secretions
13Atropine is recommended for which two (2) pediatric groups?1) Children ≤1 year
2) Children <5 years with succinylcholine
14What is the purpose of Lidocaine pretreatment in RSI?Minimize ICP increases
15Lidocaine prevents the patient from straining during intubation to avoid what risk?Herniation (from high ICP)
16Why is Etomidate used for hemodynamic instability?Safe and neuroprotective
17What is the contraindication for routine Etomidate use?Septic shock
18Why is Etomidate avoided in septic shock?Transient adrenal suppression
19What is the Drug of Choice for RSI Induction in asthma or bronchospasm?Ketamine
20Why is Ketamine preferred over midazolam in shock?Hemodynamically stable
21What is a notable side effect of Ketamine in the airway?Increased oral secretions
22What is the primary hemodynamic side effect of Propofol?Hypotension
23What are two (2) indications for Propofol in sedation?1) Status epilepticus
2) Stable patients with neuro problems
24What is the Benzodiazepine of choice for induction in RSI?Midazolam
25How long does the onset of Midazolam take?2-3 minutes
26What is the most common Analgesic used during RSI?Fentanyl
27What are the two (2) side effects of rapid Fentanyl administration?1) Respiratory depression
2) Chest wall rigidity
28What is the Drug of Choice for muscle relaxation to ensure Rapid Paralysis?Rocuronium
29What must be done immediately after breathing stops following Rocuronium?Insert the tube
30What is the benefit of using Succinylcholine as a paralytic?Rapid onset
31What are the four (4) Contraindications for Succinylcholine?1) Hyperkalemia
2) Burns/Crush (>48h)
3) Malignant hyperthermia
4) Chronic muscle disease
32What muscle diseases specifically contraindicate Succinylcholine?Duchenne and Becker
33What does the Sellick Maneuver involve?Cricoid cartilage pressure
34When is the Sellick Maneuver indicated?Difficult visualization
35Which blade is typically used in Pediatric Intubation for the floppy epiglottis?Straight (Miller)
36Which blade is standard for Adult Intubation?Curved (Macintosh)
37Where is the Macintosh blade placed?Vallecula
38What are the four (4) methods to confirm ETT Placement?1) Auscultation
2) Chest rise
3) Vital signs
4) Chest X-ray
INTRAOSSEOUS (IO) CANNULATION
39What does Intraosseous (IO) Cannulation access for drainage into central circulation?Medullary sinuses
40What is the time limit for failed IV access in shock before initiating IO Access?90 seconds
41What is the most common site for IO Cannulation?Proximal Tibia
42What is the landmark for Proximal Tibia IO access?1-2 cm medial/distal to tibial tuberosity
43What are the three (3) Absolute Contraindications for IO Access?1) Fractured bone
2) Previous penetration
3) Vascular interruption
44What are the three (3) Relative Contraindications for IO Access?1) Cellulitis/Burns
2) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
3) R-to-L shunts
45What can be obtained from IO access besides drug/fluid administration?Bone marrow (for labs)
46Which direction is the needle angled during IO Cannulation?Caudad (10-15 degrees)
47What sensation indicates entering the cavity during IO insertion?"Pop" / decreased resistance
48What are the three (3) signs of definitive IO Needle Placement?1) Needle stands firmly
2) Marrow aspirated
3) Easy flush
49What complication arises from fluid extravasation during IO Access?Compartment Syndrome
50What is a rare risk of IO Access involving marrow?Fat emboli
NEUROLOGIC EMERGENCIES AND TBI
51What is the formula for Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)?CPP = MAP - ICP
52What is the mainstay of TBI Treatment?Preserve Oxygen/Glucose
53What are the three (3) ICP Compensatory Mechanisms?1) Displace CSF
2) Decrease blood volume
3) Expand sutures (infants)
54In Cerebral Autoregulation, how does low blood pressure affect vessels?Max Dilation
55What four (4) factors characterize Secondary Brain Injury?Edema, Apoptosis, Ischemia, Hypotension/Hypoxia
56What is the hallmark Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) for severe TBI?3-8 (Coma)
57When does peak Cerebral Swelling occur after injury?48-72 hours
58What are the three (3) components of the Cushing Herniation Triad?1) Hypertension
2) Bradycardia
3) Irregular respirations
59What is the target PaCO2 for Tier 1 TBI management?Normal (35-45 mmHg)
60What fluid is used to maintain Euvolemia in TBI?Normal Saline
61What are the three (3) interventions for Acute Herniation?1) Hyperventilation
2) Hypertonic Saline
3) Mannitol
62What is the dose for 3% Hypertonic Saline in TBI?5-10 mL/kg
63What are the four (4) Tier 2 interventions for Refractory ICP?1) Decompressive craniectomy
2) Pentobarbital coma
3) Mild hypothermia
4) Extreme hyperventilation
64What is the Anticonvulsant Prophylaxis used in TBI?Levetiracetam or Fosphenytoin
65What is the target Serum Sodium in TBI?145-155 mEq/L
66What is the CPP Target for children aged 2-6 years?50 mmHg
67What is the CPP Target for children aged 11-16 years?65 mmHg
68Why must Hyperthermia be avoided in brain injury?Increases metabolic demand
69What physiological effect does Hypercarbia have on the brain?Cerebral vasodilation
70Which GCS Scale is used for children under 2 years old?Modified Pediatric GCS
71What are the three (3) PECARN CT indications for children <2 years?1) GCS ≤14
2) Altered MS
3) Palpable fracture
72What are two (2) physical signs of Basilar Skull Fracture?Raccoon eyes/Battle sign
73Why is Hypertonic Saline (HTS) often preferred over Mannitol?Volume expansion
BASIC LIFE SUPPORT (BLS) AND CPR
74What is the BLS Sequence for pediatrics?C-A-B
75What is the Compression Rate for pediatric CPR?100-120 per minute
76What is the Compression Depth for an infant?~4 cm (1/3 AP)
77What is the Compression Depth for a child?~5 cm (1/3 AP)
78What is the 1-Rescuer CPR ratio for children/infants?30:2
79What is the 2-Rescuer CPR ratio for children/infants?15:2
80Where is the Pulse Check conducted in infants?Brachial artery
81Where is the Pulse Check conducted in children?Carotid or Femoral
82How long should a Pulse Check take?5-10 seconds
83When should Adult AED pads be used in children?Age ≥8 years
84Why is complete Chest Recoil required?Allow atrial refilling
85How long should Rescue Breaths be delivered?Over 1 second
86What technique is used for Cervical Spine injury airway management?Jaw-Thrust
87What is the preferred infant 2-Rescuer Compression Technique?Two thumb-encircling hands
88Is Gasping considered normal breathing?No (sign of arrest)
89What is the first action immediately after an AED Shock?Resume CPR (compressions)
90What is the Unwitnessed Collapse protocol for children?2 mins CPR first
91What is the Witnessed Collapse protocol for children?Activate EMS/Get AED first
DIFFERENTIATION AND COMPARISONS
92Compare Etomidate vs Ketamine in terms of use?Etomidate (stability) vs Ketamine (asthma)
93Contrast Succinylcholine vs Rocuronium safety?Succinylcholine (hyperkalemia risk) vs Rocuronium (safer)
94Contrast Head Tilt vs Jaw Thrust?Head tilt (Standard) vs Jaw thrust (C-spine)
95Contrast Primary vs Secondary Brain Injury?Primary (Impact) vs Secondary (Edema/Management target)
96Contrast 1-Rescuer vs 2-Rescuer pediatric CPR ratios?30:2 vs 15:2
97Contrast Mannitol vs Hypertonic Saline hemodynamics?Mannitol (diuretic) vs HTS (volume expander)
98Contrast SIADH vs Cerebral Salt Wasting?SIADH (euvolemic) vs CSW (hypovolemic)
99Contrast Decorticate vs Decerebrate Posturing?Decorticate (Flexion) vs Decerebrate (Extension/Severe)
100Contrast Normal Ventilation vs Hyperventilation targets in TBI?Normal (Maintenance) vs Low CO2 (Acute Herniation)