5.1 -Disorders of the Blood
Summary
HEMATOLOGY AND ONCOLOGY: ANEMIA IN THE PEDIATRIC POPULATION
COMPARISON OF ANEMIAS OF INADEQUATE PRODUCTION (INEFFECTIVE ERYTHROPOIESIS)
| Feature | Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) | Megaloblastic Anemia | Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD) | Anemia of Renal Disease | Physiologic Anemia of Infancy |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Pathogenesis | Depleted iron stores leading to impaired hemoglobin synthesis. | Impaired DNA synthesis; maturational asynchrony between nucleus and cytoplasm. | Immune activation/cytokines (IL-1) leading to decreased RBC lifespan and iron sequestration. | Decreased erythropoietin (EPO) production by diseased kidneys. | Increased blood O2 at birth suppresses EPO production until tissue needs exceed delivery. |
| MCV | Microcytic (Low) | Macrocytic (High) | Normocytic (usually) | Normocytic | Normocytic |
| Reticulocyte Count | Low | Low | Normal or Low | Normal or Low | Low (initially) |
| Key Lab Findings | ↓ Ferritin, ↑ TIBC, ↑ RDW, ↓ Serum Iron. | ↓ Folate or ↓ B12; hypersegmented neutrophils on PBS. | ↓ Serum iron, Low/Normal TIBC, ↑ Ferritin. | Hb declines when GFR <43 mL/min/1.73m². | Hb drop occurs at 6-8 weeks in term infants. |
| Unique Finding | Pica, milk-heavy diet. | Goat's milk diet (folate deficient). | Ongoing infection, inflammation, or malignancy. | Associated with CKD stages. | Normal physiologic transition; no treatment needed. |
COMPARISON OF PURE RED CELL APLASIAS & PANCYTOPENIAS
| Feature | Diamond-Blackfan Anemia (DBA) | Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood (TEC) | Fanconi Anemia (FA) | Dyskeratosis Congenita (DC) | Aplastic Anemia (Acquired) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Type | Congenital Pure Red Cell Aplasia. | Acquired Pure Red Cell Aplasia. | Inherited Bone Marrow Failure (Pancytopenia). | Inherited Bone Marrow Failure (Pancytopenia). | Acquired Bone Marrow Failure (Pancytopenia). |
| Age of Onset | 90% cases <6 months. | 90% cases >1 year. | Early childhood. | Early childhood/Variable. | Any age (often teenagers). |
| Physical Findings | Snub nose, triphalangeal thumbs, snub nose. | Usually none (healthy child). | Short stature, radial/thumb anomalies, hyperpigmentation. | Triad: Reticulated skin, dystrophic nails, oral leukoplakia. | No skeletal anomalies; petechiae/bruising. |
| Erythrocyte ADA | Increased. | Normal. | Variable. | Variable. | Normal. |
| Treatment | Corticosteroids or HSCT. | Observation (recovery 2 mos). | Supportive/HSCT. | Supportive/HSCT. | ATG/Cyclosporine or HSCT (Matched Sib). |
COMPARISON OF HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (INCREASED DESTRUCTION)
| Feature | Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS) | G6PD Deficiency | Thalassemia (Alpha/Beta) | Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Defect | Membrane Protein (Ankyrin, Spectrin, Band 3). | Enzyme Deficiency (X-linked). | Globin Chain Synthesis (Alpha or Beta). | Immune-mediated destruction (antibodies/complement). |
| Triggers | None (trapped in splenic sinusoids). | Oxidative stress (drugs, infection, fava beans). | Genetic (inherited mutations). | Idiopathic, drugs, or infections. |
| Morphology (PBS) | Microspherocytes; no central pallor. | Nucleated/Fragmented RBCs; Heinz bodies/Bite cells. | Target cells, hypochromia, microcytosis. | Microspherocytes (similar to HS). |
| Confirmatory Test | Osmotic Fragility Test (OFT). | G6PD Assay. | Hemoglobin Electrophoresis. | Direct Coombs Test (Hallmark). |
| Unique Signs | Jaundice, splenomegaly, family hx of gallstones. | Hemoglobinuria (dark urine) after stress. | Frontal bossing, maxillary overgrowth (Chipmunk facies). | Secondary to underlying disease (Lupus, etc.). |
GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND EVALUATION BASICS
- In Anemia, the condition is defined as a reduction of hemoglobin concentration or RBC volume below the range for healthy persons of the same age and sex.
- Physiologic Adjustments to Anemia include increased cardiac output, augmented oxygen extraction, shunting of blood to vital organs, and increased concentration of 2,3-DPG.
- The Oxygen-Dissociation Curve in anemia demonstrates a "Shift to the Right," which reduces hemoglobin's affinity for O2 to facilitate better tissue transfer.
- A Limited Hematologic Evaluation for anemic children consists of a CBC with red cell indices, platelet count, reticulocyte count, and peripheral blood smear (PBS) examination.
- In the History of an Anemic Child, diet is a "red flag" if a 1-year-old is exclusively consuming cow's milk.
- Regarding Drug-Induced Anemia, ASA/NSAIDs may cause GI bleeding, while Chloramphenicol and TMP-SMX are known to cause marrow injury.
- In Physical Examination for Anemia, the presence of tachycardia, tachypnea, and hemic murmurs signifies severe anemia or acute blood loss.
- The MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume) indicates average RBC size; the lower limit for children 2-10 years is calculated as 70 + age in years.
- The MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) represents the amount of hemoglobin relative to the size of the cell; it is uniquely increased in Hereditary Spherocytosis.
- A Normal Peripheral Blood Smear shows RBCs with a central pallor occupying no more than 1/3 of the cell, roughly the size of a lymphocyte nucleus.
- Reticulocyte Count provides crucial information on the rate of red cell production; a low count indicates decreased production, while a high count indicates loss or destruction.
- The Reticulocyte Index (Corrected Retic) must be calculated in anemic patients using the formula: Observed Retic % x (Patient Hct / 0.45).
- The Absolute Reticulocyte Count normal range is 40,000 to 100,000; the formula is RBC (x10¹²) x (Retic # / 1000 RBC) x 1000.
INADEQUATE PRODUCTION ANEMIAS
- In Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA), anemia in term infants solely due to dietary causes usually occurs between 9-24 months of age.
- Regarding Neonatal Iron Stores, term infants are rarely iron deficient during the first 4-6 months because iron is recycled from high fetal Hgb; stores are depleted sooner in premature infants.
- The Stages of Iron Deficiency begin with "Pre-latent" (low ferritin only), then "Latent" (low serum iron, high TIBC), and finally "IDA" (low Hb and MCV).
- Iron Deficiency Anemia labs typically show microcytic hypochromic cells, increased RDW, high TIBC, and low ferritin; iron studies are often not required if the history is classic.
- Treatment of IDA involves 3-6 mg/kg/day of elemental iron; Hgb should increase by 1 g/dL within one month of therapy.
- Once Hgb normalizes in Iron Deficiency Anemia, iron therapy must continue for an additional 2-3 months to replete tissue stores.
- Megaloblastic Anemia in children who drink goat's milk is typically caused by folate (B9) deficiency.
- In Anemia of Chronic Disease, the primary mechanism is functional iron deficiency where iron is "locked" in macrophages by cytokines, leading to low serum iron but elevated/normal ferritin.
- Physiologic Anemia of Infancy is a normal process occurring in the first week of life and persisting for 6-8 weeks in term infants, requiring only observation.
BONE MARROW FAILURE SYNDROMES (PANCYTOPENIAS)
- Severe Aplastic Anemia (SAA) Criteria: Bone marrow cellularity <25% PLUS two of the following: ANC <500, Platelets <20,000, or Absolute Retic <20 x 10⁹/L.
- The treatment of choice for Acquired Aplastic Anemia with a matched sibling donor is a Bone Marrow Transplant, which carries a >85% survival rate.
- In Fanconi Anemia, patients often present with short stature, thumb anomalies (absent/triphalangeal), and radial malformations.
- Dyskeratosis Congenita is distinguished by a classic triad of clinical findings: reticulated skin hyperpigmentation, dystrophic nails, and oral leukoplakia.
- Pearson Syndrome is a rare mitochondrial disorder characterized by macrocytic anemia, exocrine pancreatic dysfunction, and failure to thrive.
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (INCREASED DESTRUCTION)
- Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS) is the most common red cell membrane defect and is usually inherited in an Autosomal Dominant (70-80%) fashion.
- The Confirmatory Test for Hereditary Spherocytosis is the Osmotic Fragility Test (OFT); the definitive treatment for severe cases is a splenectomy after age 7.
- Regarding G6PD Deficiency, it is the most common enzymatic defect among Filipinos (3.9% incidence) and follows an X-linked inheritance pattern.
- In G6PD Deficiency, hemolysis is "episodic" and triggered by oxidative stress, such as infections, fava beans, or drugs like Nitrofurantoin and Antimalarials.
- The Thalassemias are characterized by an imbalance in globin chain production (alpha or beta), leading to precipitation of excess chains that damage the RBC membrane.
- In Beta-Thalassemia Major, patients develop "chipmunk facies" due to bone marrow expansion and extramedullary hematopoiesis.
- The Most Important Complication of Thalassemia treatment is iron overload (hemosiderosis) due to chronic transfusions, necessitating iron chelation therapy.
- The Hallmark of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) is a positive Direct Coombs Test.
- In Wilson Disease, hemolytic anemia can occur due to the toxic effects of copper on the RBC membrane, often associated with Kayser-Fleischer rings.
DISTINGUISHING ENTITIES: EXAM DIFFERENTIATORS
- IDA vs. Thalassemia Trait: Both are microcytic, but Iron Deficiency Anemia has a high RDW and low ferritin, whereas Thalassemia has a normal/low RDW, high RBC count, and normal ferritin.
- DBA vs. TEC: Diamond-Blackfan Anemia presents at <6 months with congenital anomalies and high ADA; TEC presents at >1 year in a previously healthy child with normal ADA.
- HS vs. AIHA: Both show spherocytes on PBS, but Hereditary Spherocytosis has a positive family history and positive OFT, whereas AIHA has a positive Direct Coombs test.
- Aplastic Anemia vs. Leukemia: Both present with pancytopenia, but Aplastic Anemia shows a "fatty," hypocellular marrow, while Leukemia shows a "packed" marrow with blasts.
- Fanconi Anemia vs. SAA: Fanconi Anemia is an inherited pancytopenia with physical defects (thumbs, height); Acquired Aplastic Anemia typically has a preceding trigger (drugs/virus) and no skeletal anomalies.
- G6PD vs. HS: G6PD Deficiency causes acute, episodic hemolysis with "bite cells" and dark urine; Hereditary Spherocytosis causes chronic hemolysis with constant splenomegaly and microspherocytes.
- IDA vs. ACD: Iron Deficiency Anemia has high TIBC and low Ferritin; Anemia of Chronic Disease has low/normal TIBC and high/normal Ferritin.
- Megaloblastic vs. IDA: Megaloblastic Anemia is macrocytic (High MCV); IDA is microcytic (Low MCV).
- Folate vs. B12 Deficiency: Both are megaloblastic, but Vitamin B12 deficiency is more likely to have neurological symptoms (though both were grouped as Megaloblastic in common goats' milk context).
- Physiologic Anemia vs. Pathologic Anemia (Neonate): Physiologic Anemia occurs at 6-8 weeks and is asymptomatic; anemia in the first week of life is usually pathologic (blood loss/hemolysis).
- Spherocytes vs. Microspherocytes: Found in both HS and AIHA; they represent RBCs that have lost surface area, making them fragile and lacking central pallor.
- Target Cells: These are the hallmark PBS finding for Hemoglobinopathies like Thalassemia and Hgb C.
- MCHC in HS: A High MCHC (>36) is a highly specific clue for Hereditary Spherocytosis.
- Mentzer Index Hint (not explicitly in text but implied): In Thalassemia, the RBC count is often high despite low Hgb, whereas in IDA, the RBC count is typically low.
- TEC Recovery: In the recovery phase of Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood, the MCV may temporarily increase because of the sudden influx of large reticulocytes.
- Drug Triggers (Marrow): Chloramphenicol causes aplastic anemia (marrow failure), whereas Nitrofurantoin causes hemolysis only in G6PD deficient patients.
- Hypersegmentation: If you see Neutrophils with >5 lobes on PBS, the diagnosis is Megaloblastic Anemia.
- Basophilic Stippling: Though not highlighted as a "hallmark" in this specific text, it is associated with Lead Poisoning and Thalassemia.
- Splenectomy Timing: In HS and Thalassemia, splenectomy is generally deferred until after age 6-7 to reduce the risk of post-splenectomy sepsis.
- Goat Milk Anemia: High yield exam fact: Goat's Milk = Folate deficiency = Megaloblastic Anemia.
- X-Linked Anemias: G6PD Deficiency is X-linked; therefore, it is significantly more common in males.
QA
HEMATOLOGY AND ONCOLOGY: ANEMIA IN THE PEDIATRIC POPULATION
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Describe the pathogenesis of Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA). | Depleted iron stores. Leads to impaired hemoglobin synthesis. |
| 2 | Describe the pathogenesis of Megaloblastic Anemia. | Impaired DNA synthesis. Maturational asynchrony between nucleus and cytoplasm. |
| 3 | Describe the pathogenesis of Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD). | Immune activation/cytokines. Leads to decreased Red Blood Cell lifespan and iron sequestration. |
| 4 | Describe the pathogenesis of Anemia of Renal Disease. | Decreased Erythropoietin production. Caused by diseased kidneys. |
| 5 | Describe the pathogenesis of Physiologic Anemia of Infancy. | Suppressed Erythropoietin production. Increased blood Oxygen at birth suppresses production until tissue needs exceed delivery. |
| 6 | What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Iron Deficiency Anemia? | Microcytic. The Mean Corpuscular Volume is Low. |
| 7 | What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Megaloblastic Anemia? | Macrocytic. The Mean Corpuscular Volume is High. |
| 8 | What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Anemia of Chronic Disease? | Normocytic. Usually presents with a normal cell volume. |
| 9 | What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Anemia of Renal Disease? | Normocytic. Normal cell volume is typical. |
| 10 | What is the Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) in Physiologic Anemia of Infancy? | Normocytic. Presents with normal cell volume. |
| 11 | Describe the reticulocyte count in Iron Deficiency Anemia. | Low. Reflects inadequate production. |
| 12 | Describe the reticulocyte count in Megaloblastic Anemia. | Low. Reflects inadequate production. |
| 13 | Describe the reticulocyte count in Anemia of Chronic Disease. | Normal or Low. Reflects impaired erythrocyte production. |
| 14 | Describe the reticulocyte count in Anemia of Renal Disease. | Normal or Low. Reflects decreased Erythropoietin signal. |
| 15 | Describe the reticulocyte count in Physiologic Anemia of Infancy. | Low initially. Occurs as Erythropoietin is suppressed. |
| 16 | List the key laboratory findings (4) for Iron Deficiency Anemia. | ↓Ferritin, ↑TIBC, ↑RDW, ↓Serum Iron. |
| 17 | What are the key laboratory/smear findings (2) for Megaloblastic Anemia? | ↓Folate/B12, Hypersegmented Neutrophils. Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen on peripheral blood smear. |
| 18 | List the key laboratory findings (3) for Anemia of Chronic Disease. | ↓Serum Iron, ↑Ferritin. TIBC is Low or Normal. |
| 19 | What laboratory threshold defines Anemia of Renal Disease in terms of GFR? | GFR <43 mL/min/1.73m². Hemoglobin declines when GFR drops below this point. |
| 20 | When does the Hemoglobin drop occur in Physiologic Anemia of Infancy for term infants? | 6-8 weeks. This is the typical timing for term infants. |
| 21 | Name the unique dietary finding associated with Iron Deficiency Anemia. | Milk-heavy diet. Pica may also be present. |
| 22 | Name the unique dietary finding associated with Megaloblastic Anemia. | Goat's milk diet. This leads to folate deficiency. |
| 23 | What are the unique clinical contexts for Anemia of Chronic Disease? | Ongoing infection or inflammation. Also associated with malignancy. |
| 24 | What is the clinical context for Anemia of Renal Disease? | Chronic Kidney Disease. Associated with various CKD stages. |
| 25 | What is the unique management for Physiologic Anemia of Infancy? | No treatment needed. This is a normal physiologic transition. |
PURE RED CELL APLASIAS & PANCYTOPENIAS
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 26 | Define the type of disorder for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia (DBA). | Congenital Pure Red Cell Aplasia. |
| 27 | Define the type of disorder for Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood (TEC). | Acquired Pure Red Cell Aplasia. |
| 28 | Define the type of disorder for Fanconi Anemia (FA). | Inherited Bone Marrow Failure. Presents as pancytopenia. |
| 29 | Define the type of disorder for Dyskeratosis Congenita (DC). | Inherited Bone Marrow Failure. Presents as pancytopenia. |
| 30 | Define the type of disorder for Aplastic Anemia (Acquired). | Acquired Bone Marrow Failure. Presents as pancytopenia. |
| 31 | What is the age of onset for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia? | < 6 months. 90% of cases present by this age. |
| 32 | What is the age of onset for Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood? | > 1 year. 90% of cases present after this age. |
| 33 | What is the typical age of onset for Fanconi Anemia? | Early childhood. |
| 34 | What is the typical age of onset for Dyskeratosis Congenita? | Early childhood or Variable. |
| 35 | What is the typical age of onset for Aplastic Anemia (Acquired)? | Any age. Often affects teenagers. |
| 36 | List the physical findings (3) for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia. | Snub nose, triphalangeal thumbs. May also include short stature. |
| 37 | Describe the physical appearance of a child with Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood. | Usually none (healthy child). |
| 38 | List the physical findings (3) for Fanconi Anemia. | Short stature, radial/thumb anomalies. Hyperpigmentation is also common. |
| 39 | Enumerate the clinical triad for Dyskeratosis Congenita. | Reticulated skin, dystrophic nails, oral leukoplakia. |
| 40 | What are the physical signs of Aplastic Anemia (Acquired)? | Petechiae and bruising. No skeletal anomalies are present. |
| 41 | Describe the Erythrocyte Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) level in Diamond-Blackfan Anemia. | Increased. |
| 42 | Describe the Erythrocyte Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) level in Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood. | Normal. |
| 43 | What are the treatment options (2) for Diamond-Blackfan Anemia? | Corticosteroids or HSCT. |
| 44 | What is the treatment for Transient Erythroblastopenia of Childhood? | Observation. Recovery usually occurs within 2 months. |
| 45 | What is the definitive treatment for Fanconi Anemia? | Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant. Supportive care is also used. |
| 46 | What are the primary treatments (2) for Dyskeratosis Congenita? | Supportive care or HSCT. |
| 47 | What are the treatment options (2) for Acquired Aplastic Anemia? | ATG/Cyclosporine or HSCT. HSCT is preferred if a matched sibling is available. |
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (INCREASED DESTRUCTION)
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 48 | What is the underlying defect in Hereditary Spherocytosis (HS)? | Membrane Protein defect. Involves Ankyrin, Spectrin, or Band 3. |
| 49 | What is the underlying defect in G6PD Deficiency? | Enzyme Deficiency. This is an X-linked condition. |
| 50 | What is the underlying defect in Thalassemia (Alpha/Beta)? | Globin Chain Synthesis defect. Affects Alpha or Beta chains. |
| 51 | What is the underlying defect in Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA)? | Immune-mediated destruction. Involves antibodies or complement. |
| 52 | List the triggers (3) for hemolysis in G6PD Deficiency. | Oxidative stress, drugs, fava beans. Infections also serve as triggers. |
| 53 | What are the triggers for Hereditary Spherocytosis hemolysis? | None. RBCs are trapped in splenic sinusoids regardless of triggers. |
| 54 | Describe the morphology of Hereditary Spherocytosis on a peripheral blood smear. | Microspherocytes. They show no central pallor. |
| 55 | Describe the key peripheral blood smear findings (3) for G6PD Deficiency. | Heinz bodies, Bite cells. Also fragmented Red Blood Cells. |
| 56 | List the morphology findings (3) for Thalassemia. | Target cells, hypochromia, microcytosis. |
| 57 | Describe the morphology of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia on a blood smear. | Microspherocytes. This morphology is similar to Hereditary Spherocytosis. |
| 58 | What is the confirmatory test for Hereditary Spherocytosis? | Osmotic Fragility Test (OFT). |
| 59 | What is the confirmatory test for Thalassemia? | Hemoglobin Electrophoresis. |
| 60 | What is the hallmark confirmatory test for Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia? | Direct Coombs Test. |
| 61 | List the unique signs (3) of Hereditary Spherocytosis. | Jaundice, splenomegaly, gallstones. Wait for family history of gallstones. |
| 62 | What is a unique sign of G6PD Deficiency after oxidative stress? | Hemoglobinuria. Often described as dark urine. |
| 63 | List the unique physical findings (2) of Beta-Thalassemia Major. | Frontal bossing, maxillary overgrowth. Known as "Chipmunk facies". |
GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND EVALUATION BASICS
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 64 | Define Anemia in the pediatric population. | Low Hemoglobin or RBC volume. Reduction below the range for healthy persons of the same age and sex. |
| 65 | Enumerate the Physiologic Adjustments to Anemia (4). | ↑Cardiac Output, ↑Oxygen Extraction, Shunting, ↑2,3-DPG. |
| 66 | How does the Oxygen-Dissociation Curve change in anemia? | Shift to the Right. Reduces affinity for Oxygen to facilitate tissue transfer. |
| 67 | List the components of a Limited Hematologic Evaluation (4). | CBC, Platelet count, Reticulocyte count, PBS. CBC should include red cell indices. |
| 68 | What is a dietary "red flag" in the History of an Anemic Child at 1 year of age? | Exclusive cow's milk consumption. |
| 69 | Which drugs cause Drug-Induced Anemia via GI bleeding? | Aspirin and NSAIDs. |
| 70 | Which drugs are known to cause Drug-Induced Anemia via marrow injury? | Chloramphenicol and TMP-SMX. |
| 71 | What do tachycardia and hemic murmurs signify during a Physical Examination for Anemia? | Severe anemia. Or acute blood loss. |
| 72 | What is the formula for the lower limit of MCV in children aged 2-10 years? | 70 + age in years. |
| 73 | Which condition is Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC) uniquely increased in? | Hereditary Spherocytosis. |
| 74 | Describe the appearance of a Normal Peripheral Blood Smear RBC. | Central pallor ≤ 1/3 cell. Roughly the size of a lymphocyte nucleus. |
| 75 | What does a high Reticulocyte Count indicate? | Loss or destruction. Indicates the marrow is responding. |
| 76 | Provide the formula for the Reticulocyte Index (Corrected Retic). | Observed Retic % x (Patient Hct / 0.45). |
| 77 | What is the formula for the Absolute Reticulocyte Count? | RBC x (Retic # / 1000 RBC) x 1000. |
| 78 | What is the normal range for Absolute Reticulocyte Count? | 40,000 to 100,000. |
INADEQUATE PRODUCTION ANEMIAS (SUPPLEMENTAL)
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 79 | When does dietary Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) usually occur in term infants? | 9-24 months of age. |
| 80 | Why are term infants rarely iron deficient in the first 4-6 months regarding Neonatal Iron Stores? | Iron is recycled. Recycled from high fetal Hemoglobin at birth. |
| 81 | Enumerate the three Stages of Iron Deficiency. | 1) Pre-latent, 2) Latent, 3) Iron Deficiency Anemia. |
| 82 | What is the expected response to Treatment of IDA after one month? | ↑ 1 g/dL of Hemoglobin. |
| 83 | How long should therapy continue after Hemoglobin normalizes in Iron Deficiency Anemia? | 2-3 months. Required to replete tissue stores. |
| 84 | What is the primary mechanism of Anemia of Chronic Disease? | Functional iron deficiency. Iron is "locked" in macrophages by cytokines. |
BONE MARROW FAILURE SYNDROMES (SUPPLEMENTAL)
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 85 | Enumerate the Severe Aplastic Anemia (SAA) Criteria (Cellularity + 2 lab findings). | Marrow <25% PLUS: ANC <500, Platelets <20k, or Retics <20k. |
| 86 | What is the survival rate for Acquired Aplastic Anemia treated with Matched Sibling HSCT? | > 85% survival rate. |
| 87 | Describe the thumb abnormalities seen in Fanconi Anemia. | Absent or Triphalangeal. |
| 88 | List the characteristics (3) of Pearson Syndrome. | Macrocytic anemia, Pancreatic dysfunction, Failure to thrive. |
HEMOLYTIC ANEMIAS (SUPPLEMENTAL)
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 89 | What is the inheritance pattern and frequency of Hereditary Spherocytosis? | Autosomal Dominant (70-80%). Most common red cell membrane defect. |
| 90 | What is the definitive treatment for severe Hereditary Spherocytosis and its timing? | Splenectomy after age 7. |
| 91 | What is the incidence and inheritance of G6PD Deficiency in Filipinos? | 3.9% incidence; X-linked. |
| 92 | What happens to excess globin chains in Thalassemias? | Precipitation. Damages the Red Blood Cell membrane. |
| 93 | Why does Beta-Thalassemia Major cause bone marrow expansion? | Extramedullary hematopoiesis. Leads to chipmunk facies. |
| 94 | What is the most important complication of Thalassemia treatment? | Iron overload (hemosiderosis). Due to chronic transfusions. |
| 95 | What causes hemolytic anemia in Wilson Disease? | Toxic effects of copper. Copper poisons the RBC membrane. |
DISTINGUISHING ENTITIES: EXAM DIFFERENTIATORS
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 96 | Compare IDA vs Thalassemia Trait regarding RDW and Ferritin. | IDA: High RDW, Low Ferritin. Thalassemia: Normal RDW, Normal Ferritin. |
| 97 | Compare DBA vs TEC regarding age and ADA. | DBA: <6 months, High ADA. TEC: >1 year, Normal ADA. |
| 98 | Compare HS vs AIHA regarding family history and Direct Coombs. | HS: Positive Family Hx, Negative Coombs. AIHA: Negative Family Hx, Positive Coombs. |
| 99 | Compare Aplastic Anemia vs Leukemia marrow findings. | Aplastic Anemia: Fatty, hypocellular. Leukemia: Packed with blasts. |
| 100 | Compare Fanconi Anemia vs SAA physical defects. | Fanconi: Skeletal defects (thumbs/height). SAA: No skeletal anomalies. |
| 101 | Compare G6PD vs HS in terms of hemolysis pattern. | G6PD: Acute, episodic (bite cells). HS: Chronic (spherocytes). |
| 102 | Compare Vitamin B12 vs Folate Deficiency. | B12: Neurological symptoms present. Folate: Neurological symptoms absent. |
| 103 | Compare Physiologic vs Pathologic Neonatal Anemia timing. | Physiologic: 6-8 weeks. Pathologic: 1st week of life. |
| 104 | What is the PBS hallmark for Hemoglobinopathies like Thalassemia? | Target cells. |
| 105 | What MCHC value is a specific clue for Hereditary Spherocytosis? | High MCHC (>36). |
| 106 | Why does TEC show a temporary MCV increase during recovery? | Influx of large reticulocytes. |
| 107 | Contrast Chloramphenicol vs Nitrofurantoin toxicity. | Chloramphenicol: Marrow failure. Nitrofurantoin: Hemolysis in G6PD. |
| 108 | What is the diagnostic significance of Neutrophils with >5 lobes on PBS? | Megaloblastic Anemia. Known as hypersegmentation. |
| 109 | What are the two main associations for Basophilic Stippling? | Lead Poisoning and Thalassemia. |
| 110 | Why is G6PD Deficiency more common in males? | X-linked inheritance. |
5.2 -Disorders of the Blood pt 2
Summary
text
HEMOSTASIS AND BLEEDING DISORDERS
| Topic | Feature | Details |
|---|---|---|
| Hemostasis | Definition | An active process that clots blood at injury sites while limiting clot size; prevents blood loss and maintaining blood fluidity. |
| Hemostasis | Components | Depends on the interaction between Blood Vessels (Endothelium), Platelets, and Clotting Factors. |
| Primary Hemostasis | Mechanism | Involves platelet plug formation; defects lead to mucosal/superficial bleeding. |
| Secondary Hemostasis | Mechanism | Involves the coagulation cascade and fibrin meshwork formation; defects lead to deep tissue bleeding. |
THE COAGULATION CASCADE & SCREENING
- Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) measures the Intrinsic Pathway (Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII) and the Common Pathway (I, II, V, X).
- Prothrombin Time (PT) measures the Extrinsic Pathway (Factor VII) and the Common Pathway (I, II, V, X).
- PTT Prolongation with Bleeding usually indicates a deficiency in Factors VIII, IX, or XI.
- PTT Prolongation without Bleeding suggests a deficiency in Factor XII, Prekallikrein (PreK), or High Molecular Weight Kinogen (HMWK).
- Isolated Prolonged PT specifically suggests a Factor VII deficiency.
- The Common Pathway involves Factors X, V, II (Prothrombin), and I (Fibrinogen); Factor Xa activates prothrombin to thrombin.
- Factor XIII is required to crosslink and stabilize the Fibrin Clot; it is NOT measured by standard PT or PTT.
- Vitamin K Dependent Factors include Factors II, VII, IX, and X (Mnemonic: 1972).
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS BY LAB SCREEN
| Lab Finding | Potential Diagnosis |
|---|---|
| ↑ PT, Normal PTT/Plt | Factor VII deficiency, Early liver disease, Vitamin K deficiency, Warfarin use. |
| ↑ PTT, Normal PT/Plt | Hemophilia (A or B), Factor XI or XII deficiency, von Willebrand Disease (VWD), PTT inhibitor. |
| ↑ PT, ↑ PTT, Normal Plt | Vitamin K deficiency, Liver disease, Massive transfusion, Oral anticoagulants, Common pathway deficiency (II, V, X, I). |
| ↑ PT, ↑ PTT, ↓ Platelet | DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) or Severe liver dysfunction. |
| Normal PT, Normal PTT, ↓ Platelet | ITP (Immune Thrombocytopenia), Infection, Bone marrow failure, WAS, BSS. |
| All Labs Normal | VWD (Mild), Platelet function disorders, Factor XIII deficiency, Vitamin C deficiency, Collagen disorders. |
CLINICAL EVALUATION OF BLEEDING
- Petechiae are skin bleeds < 2 mm in size, usually signifying low platelet counts.
- Purpura are skin bleeds between 2 mm and 1 cm.
- Ecchymoses (bruises) are skin bleeds > 1 cm.
- Hematomas are bleeds > 1 cm that usually involve deep subcutaneous tissue.
- Mucosal Bleeding (Epistaxis, Menorrhagia, Petechiae) is the clinical phenotype of Platelet/Primary Hemostasis disorders.
- Deep Tissue Bleeding (Hemarthrosis, Hematoma, Delayed surgical bleeding) is the clinical phenotype of Coagulation Factor/Secondary Hemostasis disorders.
HEMOPHILIA (A & B)
| Feature | Hemophilia A | Hemophilia B |
|---|---|---|
| Deficiency | Factor VIII | Factor IX |
| Frequency | Most Common (80-85%) | Less Common (15-20%) |
| Inheritance | X-linked recessive | X-linked recessive |
| Hallmark PE | Hemarthrosis (Joint bleeding) | Hemarthrosis (Joint bleeding) |
| Screening Labs | ↑ PTT, Normal PT, Normal Platelets | ↑ PTT, Normal PT, Normal Platelets |
| Definitive Test | Factor VIII Assay (VWF is normal) | Factor IX Assay |
- Hemophilia Severity is classified by factor activity: Severe (< 1%) involves spontaneous bleeds; Moderate (1-5%) involves bleeds with mild trauma; Mild (5-40%) involves bleeds only with major trauma/surgery.
- Hemarthrosis in Hemophilia most commonly occurs in hinged joints: ankle, knees, and elbows.
- Mixing Study distinguishes factor deficiency from inhibitors; if the PTT corrects with normal plasma, it indicates a Factor Deficiency.
- Hemophilia A Treatment Dosage: 1 unit/kg of Factor VIII raises plasma levels by 2% (2 IU/dl); the half-life is 8-12 hours.
- Hemophilia B Treatment Dosage: 1 unit/kg of Factor IX raises plasma levels by 1% (1 IU/dl); the half-life is 18-24 hours.
- Management Principle: For suspected life-threatening bleeds (e.g., ICH), treat first (Even IF IN DOUBT) before performing diagnostic tests.
- Supportive Care (RICE): Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation are standard for acute bleeding episodes.
- Hemophilia Precautions: Patients must avoid IM injections, aspirin, and NSAIDs.
VON WILLEBRAND DISEASE (VWD)
- Von Willebrand Disease (VWD) is the most common inherited bleeding disorder (1-3% of population).
- Von Willebrand Factor (VWF) serves two roles: it glues platelets to damaged endothelium and protects Factor VIII from degradation.
- Menorrhagia (heavy menses) is one of the most important and frequent complications of VWD in women.
- Blood Type O individuals normally have lower VWF levels, which must be considered during diagnosis.
- VWD Type 1 is a partial quantitative deficiency of VWF and is the most common type; treated with Desmopressin.
- VWD Type 2 involves a qualitative/dysfunctional VWF.
- VWD Type 3 is the total absence of VWF; clinically severe and presents with low Factor VIII levels.
- VWF Assay is the definitive test for diagnosis.
IMMUNE THROMBOCYTOPENIA (ITP)
- Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children.
- ITP Pathogenesis involves autoantibodies (IgG) against platelet surface glycoproteins (GP IIb/IIIa or GP Ib/IX), leading to splenic destruction.
- Clinical Presentation of ITP is an abrupt onset of petechiae/bruising in an otherwise healthy/well child (toddler/school age).
- ITP History often includes a viral infection or immunization 1-2 weeks prior to symptoms.
- Physical Exam in ITP should be negative for splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy; presence of these "red flags" suggests leukemia or other causes.
- ITP Diagnosis is largely a diagnosis of exclusion; CBC shows isolated thrombocytopenia (< 100 x 10⁹/L) with normal to large platelets.
- Bone Marrow Examination is not required for typical ITP but is used to rule out other causes if features are atypical or if steroids fail.
- ITP Management: Most cases (80%) resolve spontaneously within 3-6 months; observation is preferred for mild bleeding.
- Acute ITP Pharmacotherapy: If treatment is needed, short-course corticosteroids, IVIG, or Anti-D are used.
- Splenectomy is reserved for severe persistent or chronic ITP cases.
OTHER HEMOSTATIC DISORDERS
- Thrombosis in Children is rare compared to adults and usually secondary to critically ill states, cancer, or estrogen use.
- Late Vitamin K Deficiency occurs after the neonatal period, often in breastfed infants or those with malabsorption/liver disease.
- DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) is a thrombotic microangiopathy causing consumption of clotting factors and platelets.
- DIC Diagnosis shows prolonged PT, prolonged PTT, and low Platelets (all deranged).
- DIC Treatment: The priority is treating the underlying trigger (infection/malignancy) and correcting shock/acidosis.
- Tranexamic Acid is an antifibrinolytic used to manage mucosal bleeding (epistaxis, oral bleeds) in various disorders.
COMPARISON AND DIFFERENTIATION FOR EXAMS
- ITP vs. Leukemia: ITP presents in a well-appearing child with isolated low platelets; Leukemia presents with an unwell child, weight loss, bone pain, and hepatosplenomegaly.
- Hemophilia vs. VWD: Hemophilia presents with deep tissue bleeds (hemarthrosis) and is X-linked (males); VWD presents with mucosal bleeds (menorrhagia/epistaxis) and affects both sexes.
- Hemophilia A vs. Hemophilia B: Indistinguishable by symptoms; Hemophilia A is Factor VIII deficiency and common; Hemophilia B is Factor IX deficiency and less common.
- Primary vs. Secondary Hemostasis: Primary (Platelets) causes immediate bleeding/petechiae; Secondary (Factors) causes delayed/deep bleeding and large hematomas.
- PT vs. PTT: PT is the best screen for Factor VII and Warfarin monitoring; PTT is the best screen for the intrinsic pathway (8, 9, 11, 12) and Heparin monitoring.
- VWD vs. Hemophilia A Lab Check: Both can show low Factor VIII, but VWD also has low VWF levels, whereas Hemophilia A has normal VWF.
- ITP Platelet Size: In ITP, platelets are normal to large; small platelets may suggest Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS).
- Vitamin K Deficiency vs. Liver Disease: Both prolong PT/PTT; Vitamin K deficiency usually responds to Vitamin K administration, while Liver disease may not and often includes low platelets.
- Mixing Study Correction: If PTT corrects, it's a deficiency; if it does not correct, an inhibitor (like Lupus anticoagulant or anti-factor VIII) is present.
- Factor VIII vs. Factor IX Response: 1 unit/kg of Factor VIII provides double the percentage rise (2%) compared to Factor IX (1%).
- VWD Type 1 vs. Type 3: Type 1 is mild and quantitative; Type 3 is severe with near-total VWF absence and very low Factor VIII.
- Petechiae vs. Ecchymosis: Petechiae are pin-point (< 2mm); Ecchymoses are large bruises (> 1cm).
- Hemostatsis Components: Platelet problems affect number or function; Clotting factor problems involve deficiency or inhibitors; Vessel problems involve connective tissue or injury.
- Initial Screen for Bleeding Disorder: Always includes CBC with Platelets, PT, and PTT.
- Bleeding Phenotype of VWD: Characterized by Easy bruising, Epistaxis, and Menorrhagia (Platelet-like bleeding).
- Treatment Priority in DIC: You must treat the underlying cause; factor replacement is only supportive.
- Factor Assay: This is the confirmatory test for Hemophilia after a prolonged PTT is found.
- Treatment Priority in Hemophilia: Bleeds must be treated within 2 hours; head injuries require immediate factor infusion even before imaging.
- ITP "Well Child" Rule: If the child has significant petechiae but feels fine and the rest of the physical exam is normal, ITP is the top differential.
- Antifibrinolytic Contraindication: While generally used for mucosal bleeds, they are usually avoided in hematuria due to risk of obstructive clots.
QA
| Count | Question | Answer |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Define the active process of Hemostasis. | Clots blood at injury sites while limiting size. |
| 2 | What are the three components of Hemostasis? | 1) Blood Vessels 2) Platelets 3) Clotting Factors |
| 3 | What is the mechanism involved in Primary Hemostasis? | Platelet plug formation. |
| 4 | Defects in Primary Hemostasis lead to what clinical phenotype? | Mucosal/superficial bleeding. |
| 5 | What is the mechanism involved in Secondary Hemostasis? | Coagulation cascade and fibrin meshwork. |
| 6 | Defects in Secondary Hemostasis lead to what clinical phenotype? | Deep tissue bleeding. |
| 7 | Which pathways are measured by Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)? | Intrinsic and Common pathways. |
| 8 | Enumerate the specific factors (8) measured by Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT). | Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, I, II, V, X. |
| 9 | Which pathways are measured by Prothrombin Time (PT)? | Extrinsic and Common pathways. |
| 10 | Enumerate the specific factors (5) measured by Prothrombin Time (PT). | Factors VII, I, II, V, X. |
| 11 | Deficiency in which factors (3) usually causes PTT Prolongation with Bleeding? | Factors VIII, IX, or XI. |
| 12 | Deficiency in which substances (3) suggests PTT Prolongation without Bleeding? | Factor XII, Prekallikrein, or HMWK. |
| 13 | What specific deficiency is suggested by an Isolated Prolonged PT? | Factor VII deficiency. |
| 14 | Enumerate the factors (4) involved in the Common Pathway. | Factors X, V, II, and I. |
| 15 | In the common pathway, what activates Prothrombin to Thrombin? | Factor Xa. |
| 16 | What is the function of Factor XIII? | Crosslinks and stabilizes Fibrin Clot. |
| 17 | How is Factor XIII measured in standard screening? | Not measured by PT/PTT. |
| 18 | Enumerate the Vitamin K Dependent Factors (4). | Factors II, VII, IX, and X. |
| 19 | What is the mnemonic for Vitamin K Dependent Factors? | 1972. |
| 20 | List 4 potential diagnoses for: ↑ PT, Normal PTT/Platelets. | 1) Factor VII deficiency 2) Early liver disease 3) Vitamin K deficiency 4) Warfarin use |
| 21 | List 4 potential diagnoses for: ↑ PTT, Normal PT/Platelets. | 1) Hemophilia 2) Factor XI/XII deficiency 3) von Willebrand Disease 4) PTT inhibitor |
| 22 | List 5 potential diagnoses for: ↑ PT, ↑ PTT, Normal Platelets. | 1) Vitamin K deficiency 2) Liver disease 3) Massive transfusion 4) Oral anticoagulants 5) Common pathway deficiency |
| 23 | List 2 diagnoses for: ↑ PT, ↑ PTT, ↓ Platelets. | DIC or Severe liver dysfunction. |
| 24 | List 5 diagnoses for: Normal PT, Normal PTT, ↓ Platelets. | 1) ITP 2) Infection 3) Bone marrow failure 4) WAS 5) BSS |
| 25 | List 5 potential diagnoses when All Hemostasis Labs are Normal. | 1) Mild VWD 2) Platelet function disorders 3) Factor XIII deficiency 4) Vitamin C deficiency 5) Collagen disorders |
| 26 | Define the size and significance of Petechiae. | < 2 mm; low platelets. |
| 27 | Define the size of Purpura. | 2 mm to 1 cm. |
| 28 | Define the size of Ecchymoses. | > 1 cm (bruises). |
| 29 | Define the size and tissue involvement of Hematomas. | > 1 cm; deep subcutaneous tissue. |
| 30 | Enumerate three examples of Mucosal Bleeding. | Epistaxis, Menorrhagia, and Petechiae. |
| 31 | Enumerate three examples of Deep Tissue Bleeding. | Hemarthrosis, Hematoma, and Delayed surgical bleeding. |
| 32 | What is the factor deficiency in Hemophilia A? | Factor VIII. |
| 33 | What is the factor deficiency in Hemophilia B? | Factor IX. |
| 34 | Which type is the most common Hemophilia? | Hemophilia A (80-85%). |
| 35 | What is the inheritance pattern of Hemophilia A and B? | X-linked recessive. |
| 36 | What is the hallmark physical exam finding of Hemophilia? | Hemarthrosis (Joint bleeding). |
| 37 | What are the screening lab results for Hemophilia? | ↑ PTT; Normal PT/Platelets. |
| 38 | What is the definitive test for Hemophilia A? | Factor VIII Assay. |
| 39 | What is the definitive test for Hemophilia B? | Factor IX Assay. |
| 40 | Describe Severe Hemophilia in terms of factor activity and bleeding risk. | < 1%; spontaneous bleeds. |
| 41 | Describe Moderate Hemophilia in terms of factor activity and bleeding risk. | 1-5%; bleeds with mild trauma. |
| 42 | Describe Mild Hemophilia in terms of factor activity and bleeding risk. | 5-40%; bleeds with major trauma/surgery. |
| 43 | Enumerate the three most common hinged joints for Hemarthrosis. | Ankle, knees, and elbows. |
| 44 | What does a Mixing Study distinguish? | Factor deficiency from inhibitors. |
| 45 | If the PTT corrects with normal plasma during a Mixing Study, what does it indicate? | Factor Deficiency. |
| 46 | How much does 1 unit/kg of Factor VIII raise plasma levels in Hemophilia A? | 2% (2 IU/dl). |
| 47 | What is the half-life of Factor VIII in Hemophilia A? | 8-12 hours. |
| 48 | How much does 1 unit/kg of Factor IX raise plasma levels in Hemophilia B? | 1% (1 IU/dl). |
| 49 | What is the half-life of Factor IX in Hemophilia B? | 18-24 hours. |
| 50 | What is the management principle for life-threatening bleeds in Hemophilia? | Treat first before diagnostic tests. |
| 51 | Enumerate Supportive Care (RICE) components for acute bleeding. | Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. |
| 52 | List 3 Hemophilia Precautions regarding procedures/meds. | Avoid IM injections, aspirin, NSAIDs. |
| 53 | What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder? Von Willebrand Disease | Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). |
| 54 | What are the two primary roles of Von Willebrand Factor (VWF)? | 1) Glues platelets to endothelium 2) Protects Factor VIII |
| 55 | What is a frequent complication of Von Willebrand Disease in women? | Menorrhagia (heavy menses). |
| 56 | Which Blood Type is associated with lower baseline VWF levels? | Blood Type O. |
| 57 | Describe VWD Type 1. | Partial quantitative deficiency (most common). |
| 58 | What is the treatment for VWD Type 1? | Desmopressin. |
| 59 | Describe VWD Type 2. | Qualitative/dysfunctional VWF. |
| 60 | Describe VWD Type 3. | Total absence of VWF. |
| 61 | What is the definitive test for Von Willebrand Disease? | VWF Assay. |
| 62 | What is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children? Immune Thrombocytopenia | Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP). |
| 63 | Define the pathogenesis of Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP). | IgG autoantibodies against platelet glycoproteins. |
| 64 | Enumerate the two platelet glycoproteins targeted in ITP. | GP IIb/IIIa or GP Ib/IX. |
| 65 | Where does platelet destruction occur in ITP? | Spleen. |
| 66 | What is the clinical presentation of Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)? | Abrupt petechiae/bruising in healthy child. |
| 67 | What is often found in the patient history of ITP? | Viral infection or immunization. |
| 68 | What findings should be absent on the physical exam of ITP? | Splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. |
| 69 | What does the CBC show in Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP)? | Isolated thrombocytopenia (< 100 x 10⁹/L). |
| 70 | Describe the platelet size in Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP). | Normal to large platelets. |
| 71 | When is Bone Marrow Examination indicated in ITP? | If features are atypical or steroids fail. |
| 72 | What is the spontaneous resolution rate for ITP? | 80% (within 3-6 months). |
| 73 | What is the management for ITP with mild bleeding? | Observation. |
| 74 | Enumerate 3 pharmacotherapy options for Acute ITP. | Corticosteroids, IVIG, or Anti-D. |
| 75 | When is a Splenectomy reserved for ITP? | Severe persistent or chronic cases. |
| 76 | Thrombosis in Children is usually secondary to what (3)? | Critically ill states, cancer, estrogen. |
| 77 | Who is at risk for Late Vitamin K Deficiency? | Breastfed infants or malabsorption. |
| 78 | Define Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). | Thrombotic microangiopathy consuming factors/platelets. |
| 79 | What are the diagnostic lab findings for DIC? | Prolonged PT, prolonged PTT, low Platelets. |
| 80 | What is the priority in DIC Treatment? | Treating the underlying trigger. |
| 81 | What is Tranexamic Acid used for? | Antifibrinolytic for mucosal bleeding. |
| 82 | Compare ITP vs. Leukemia regarding physical exam. | ITP: well child; Leukemia: unwell, hepatosplenomegaly. |
| 83 | Compare Hemophilia vs. VWD clinical phenotype. | Hemophilia: deep tissue; VWD: mucosal. |
| 84 | Compare Hemophilia A vs. B symptoms. | Indistinguishable. |
| 85 | Compare Primary vs. Secondary Hemostasis bleeding type. | Primary: immediate/petechiae; Secondary: delayed/hematomas. |
| 86 | What is the best screen for Factor VII and Warfarin? | Prothrombin Time (PT). |
| 87 | What is the best screen for the Intrinsic Pathway and Heparin? | Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT). |
| 88 | How do VWD and Hemophilia A differ on factor assay? | VWF is low in VWD; normal in Hemophilia A. |
| 89 | Small platelets on CBC suggest what diagnosis? Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome | Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS). |
| 90 | How to differentiate Vitamin K Deficiency vs. Liver Disease? | Vit K deficiency responds to Vitamin K. |
| 91 | What does Mixing Study non-correction imply? | Presence of an inhibitor. |
| 92 | Contrast VWD Type 1 vs. Type 3 severity. | Type 1: mild/quantitative; Type 3: severe/absence. |
| 93 | Contrast Petechiae vs. Ecchymosis size. | Petechiae < 2mm; Ecchymoses > 1cm. |
| 94 | What does Secondary Hemostasis problems involve? | Clotting factor deficiency or inhibitors. |
| 95 | What is the Initial Screen for bleeding disorders? | CBC with Platelets, PT, and PTT. |
| 96 | Describe the Bleeding Phenotype of VWD. | Easy bruising, Epistaxis, and Menorrhagia. |
| 97 | What is the confirmatory test for Hemophilia? | Factor Assay. |
| 98 | Hemophilia bleeds must be treated within how many hours? | Within 2 hours. |
| 99 | What is the treatment priority for a Hemophilia Head Injury? | Immediate factor infusion before imaging. |
| 100 | What is the ITP "Well Child" Rule? | Significant petechiae, asymptomatic child, normal exam. |
| 101 | Why is Tranexamic Acid avoided in hematuria? | Risk of obstructive clots. |
| 102 | What activates Prothrombin to Thrombin? | Factor Xa. |
| 103 | Does standard PT and PTT measure Factor XIII? | No. |
| 104 | Hemophilia A represents what percentage of cases? | 80-85%. |
| 105 | What is the dose response of 1 unit/kg Factor IX? | 1% rise. |
5.3 - Neoplasms of the Blood
Summary
text
CHILDHOOD CANCER AND HEMATOLOGIC MALIGNANCIES
| Feature | Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) | Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) | Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) | Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Frequency | 77% of childhood leukemias (Most common) | 11% of childhood leukemias | 2-3% of childhood leukemias | 1-2% of childhood leukemias (Least common) |
| Peak Age | 2-3 years of age | Increases in adolescence (15-19 yrs) | N/A | Younger than 2 years of age |
| Hallmark Genetics | t(12;21) ETV6-RUNX1 (Favorable) | t(15;17) in APL (Favorable) | t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome (99%) | RAS pathway mutations (NF1, PTPN11); No Philadelphia chromosome |
| Diagnostic Blast % | >25% lymphoblasts in Bone Marrow | >20% blasts in Bone Marrow | Varies by phase (Chronic <10%) | <20% blasts; requires monocytosis |
| Unique Findings | Pancytopenia, bone pain, lymphadenopathy | DIC (esp APL), Chloromas, Gingival infiltration, Blueberry muffin lesions | Hyperleukocytosis (>100k), Normal/Elevated platelets | Massive splenomegaly, rashes, hemorrhagic manifestations |
| Standard Treatment | Multi-phase Chemotherapy (2-3 years) | Intensive Chemotherapy; Stem Cell Transplant | Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) | Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant (Curative) |
| Feature | Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) | Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL) |
|---|---|---|
| Incidence | Bimodal age distribution (peaks 15-35 and 50) | 60% of pediatric lymphomas; aggressive/high-grade |
| Pathologic Hallmark | Reed-Sternberg cells (Large cells, multilobulated nuclei) | Subtype-specific (LBL, Burkitt, DLBCL, ALCL) |
| Clinical Presentation | Painless, firm, rubbery cervical nodes; "B symptoms" common | Rapidly progressing mass; SVC syndrome; oncologic emergencies |
| Spread Pattern | Predictable/In-order nodal spread | Non-contiguous/Extranodal spread (Abdomen, Mediastinum, CNS) |
| Associated Virus | EBV, CMV, HHV-6 | EBV, HIV |
GENERAL ONCOLOGY AND CHEMOTHERAPY
- Childhood cancer comprises mostly of leukemias, lymphomas, and brain tumors, whereas carcinomas and melanomas are more characteristically seen in adolescents.
- In childhood malignancies, the most common type of cancer overall is leukemia.
- In Leukemia or Neuroblastoma with bone marrow infiltration, patients often present with fever, persistent infections, and neutropenia.
- In Lymphomas (Hodgkin and Non-Hodgkin), hallmark systemic findings include Fever of Unknown Origin (FUO), weight loss, night sweats, and painless lymphadenopathy.
- In Brain tumors, common manifestations include headaches and visual disturbances resulting from increased intracranial pressure.
- In Retinoblastoma, the signature clinical finding is leukokoria (white pupillary reflex).
- In Neuroblastoma, periorbital ecchymosis ("raccoon eyes") is often present, representing metastatic disease.
- In Anterior mediastinal masses (such as gest cell tumors and lymphomas), patients often present with cough, stridor, and tracheobronchial compression.
- In Neuroblastoma, gastrointestinal symptoms can include a palpable abdominal mass or diarrhea.
- In Osteosarcoma and Ewing’s sarcoma, musculoskeletal symptoms like bone pain, limping, and arthralgia are primary features.
- In Brain tumors, Craniopharyngioma, or Langerhans cell histiocytosis, neuroendocrine involvement may manifest as diabetes insipidus and poor growth.
- At Cisplatin (Cp), the primary chemotherapy side effects are ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and high emetic potential.
- At Bleomycin (B), the most concerning chemotherapy-related toxicity involves lung disturbances (pulmonary fibrosis).
- At Doxorubicin (D), the dose-limiting chemotherapy side effect is cardiac toxicity.
- At Methotrexate (Mtx), chemotherapy side effects commonly include liver toxicity.
- At Irinotecan (Ir), a major chemotherapy side effect is severe diarrhea.
ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA (ALL)
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the disease represents the most common malignant neoplasm in childhood, accounting for 31% of all childhood malignancies.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the peak age of incidence is 2 to 3 years of age.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the B-cell immunophenotype is more common (85%) and carries a better prognosis compared to the T-cell phenotype (15%).
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), hyperdiploidy (extra chromosomes) is associated with a better prognosis, while hypodiploidy is unfavorable.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the translocation t(12;21) (p13;q22) ETV-RUNX1 is the most common and carries a favorable prognosis.
- In ALL Morphology L1 Type, lymphoblasts are small, uniform, and monotonous with scant cytoplasm; this is the most common type in children.
- In ALL Morphology L2 Type, lymphoblasts are large and heterogeneous, often variable in size and shape, and can be mistaken for AML.
- In ALL Morphology L3 (Burkitt Type), cells show deeply basophilic cytoplasm with characteristic cytoplasmic vacuoles and round nuclei.
- At ALL risk stratification, Standard Risk is defined as age 1–9.99 years and a initial WBC < 50,000/µL.
- At ALL risk stratification, High Risk is defined as age <1 year or ≥10 years, and/or an initial WBC > 50,000/µL.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), boys historically had a poorer prognosis due to risks of testicular relapse and higher T-cell ALL incidence, though modern intensive therapy has narrowed this gap.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), the definitive diagnosis requires a Bone Marrow Aspiration (BMA) showing >25% lymphoblasts.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), Serum LDH is measured to assess tumor burden; higher levels indicate greater burden.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), a Chest X-ray must be performed to check for an anterior mediastinal mass.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), a Lumbar Puncture is required after diagnosis to assess for CNS involvement.
- In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Induction, the goal is the induction of remission.
- In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Consolidation, the goal is to reinforce remission in the CNS and marrow compartments.
- In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Interim Maintenance and Delayed Intensification, the goal is to further reduce residual leukemia in the marrow.
- In ALL Chemotherapy phase: Maintenance, the goal is to reduce the overall risk of relapse; total treatment typically takes 2-3 years.
- In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), supportive care includes "Double Hydration," allopurinol for uric acid, and Pneumocystis jirovecii prophylaxis.
ACUTE MYELOGENOUS LEUKEMIA (AML)
- In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), the relative frequency increases significantly during adolescence, representing 36% of leukemias in 15-19 year olds.
- In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), risk factors include ionizing radiation, Down syndrome, Fanconi anemia, and prior exposure to alkylating agents or epipodophyllotoxins.
- In Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL), signs and laboratory findings of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) are common.
- In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), "blueberry muffin" lesions (subcutaneous nodules) may be observed.
- In AML (especially Monocytic Subtype), infiltration of the gingiva (gums) is a characteristic clinical finding.
- In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), Chloromas or Granulocytic Sarcomas (leukemic masses) can fill soft tissue spaces in the eyes, gums, or skin.
- In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), diagnosis is confirmed by Bone Marrow Aspiration showing >20% blasts.
- In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), favorable cytogenetic features include t(8;21), t(15;17), and Inv (16).
- In Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML), unfavorable cytogenetic features include Monosomies 7 and 5, and 11q23 abnormalities.
CHRONIC (CML) AND JUVENILE MYELOMONOCYTIC LEUKEMIA (JMML)
- In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML), 99% of cases are associated with the t(9;22)(q34;q11) translocation, known as the Philadelphia chromosome.
- In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML), patients often present with hyperleukocytosis (WBC >100,000) and normal or elevated platelet counts.
- In CML Treatment, Imatinib (or Dasatinib) is an oral tyrosine kinase inhibitor that inhibits BCR-ABL and often requires lifelong administration.
- In Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML), the disease typically affects children younger than 2 years of age and presents with massive splenomegaly, monocytosis, and no Philadelphia chromosome.
- In Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML), mutations often lead to activation of the RAS oncogene pathway (NF1, PTPN11).
- In Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML), transplant is the only curative intent treatment, though survival is generally very poor.
LYMPHOMAS
- In Lymphoma, it is the most common cancer in adolescents aged 15-19 years.
- In Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL), the hallmark finding is the Reed-Sternberg cell, described as a large cell with multiple or multilobulated nuclei.
- In Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL), physical examination typically reveals painless, non-tender, firm, and "rubbery" cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy.
- At Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) "B symptoms", the triad consists of unexplained fever >38°C, weight loss >10% in 6 months, and drenching night sweats.
- In Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) staging, Stage I involves a single node region, while Stage IV indicates diffuse metastasis to extralymphatic organs.
- In Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL), the disease is categorised by high-grade, aggressive behavior; 70% of pediatric patients have Stage III-IV disease at diagnosis.
- In Burkitt Lymphoma (NHL Subtype), characteristics include t(8;14) translocation, mature B-cell phenotype (CD19, CD20 positive), and a "starry sky" appearance (suggested by rapid turnover).
- In Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL), the disease frequently presents as an oncologic emergency like Superior Vena Caval (SVC) Syndrome or Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) due to rapid cell turnover.
- In NHL St. Jude Staging, any primary intrathoracic mass (mediastinal, pleural) is automatically classified as Stage III.
- In Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL), radiation therapy is reserved for special circumstances like CNS involvement in LBL, airway obstruction (SMS), or paraplegia.
ONCOLOGIC EMERGENCIES (HYPERLEUKOCYTOSIS & TLS)
- At Hyperleukocytosis, the condition is defined as a total WBC count greater than 100,000 cells/mm³.
- In Hyperleukocytosis Management, aggressive hydration with 3L/m²/day of IVF (D5 0.45 NaCl) is required, and transfusion of Packed Red Blood Cells (PRBC) must be avoided to prevent further increasing viscosity.
- In Hyperleukocytosis Management, platelets should ideally be maintained at 50,000 to prevent intracranial hemorrhage.
- At Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), the condition involves the rapid release of intracellular metabolites (Potassium, Phosphorus, Nucleic acids) exceeding renal excretory capacity.
- In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), diagnosis requires two or more of: Uric acid >8 mg/dL, Potassium >6 meq/dL, Phosphorus >2.1 mmol/L, or Calcium <1.75 mmol/L (or 25% change from baseline).
- In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), hyperkalemia is characterized by widened QRS and peaked T-waves on ECG.
- In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), hypocalcemia presents with tetany, seizures, a prolonged QTc interval, and + Trousseau/Chovestek signs.
- In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) Management, alkalinization of urine is now avoided to prevent precipitation of xanthine calculi and calcium phosphate in renal tubules.
- At Rasburicase (recombinant urate oxidase), the drug effectively reduces existing uric acid (unlike Allopurinol which only blocks new formation).
- In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), dialysis is indicated for potassium >6 meq/L, phosphate >10 mg/dL, or volume overload/anuria unresponsive to medical therapy.
DIFFERENTIATION AND COMPARISONS FOR EXAMS
- In Acute Leukemia Diagnosis, ALL requires >25% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow, whereas AML requires >20% blasts.
- In Leukemia vs. ITP, Leukemia typically presents with pancytopenia and organomegaly, while ITP presents with isolated thrombocytopenia and a normal-sized spleen.
- In CML vs. JMML, the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22) is present in 99% of CML cases but is notably absent in JMML.
- In CML vs. Acute Leukemia, CML usually presents with extreme hyperleukocytosis but with normal or elevated platelet counts, unlike the thrombocytopenia typical of acute forms.
- In Hodgkin vs. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma, Hodgkin usually presents with slow, firm, rubbery nodal enlargement, while Non-Hodgkin presents with a very rapidly progressing mass and higher risk of SVC syndrome.
- In Hodgkin Lymphoma Staging, Stage II refers to nodes on the same side of the diaphragm, while Stage III refers to involvement on both sides of the diaphragm.
- In NHL Staging, a single side of the diaphragm involvement is Stage II, but any intrathoracic/mediastinal mass is automatically Stage III.
- In Hyperleukocytosis risk, Myeloblasts (AML) are bigger and "stickier" than Lymphoblasts (ALL), causing leukostasis at lower counts (~200k in AML vs ~300k in ALL).
- In Allopurinol vs. Rasburicase, Allopurinol prevents the formation of new uric acid, while Rasburicase breaks down pre-existing uric acid.
- In Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS), the classic metabolic quadriad is Hyperuricemia, Hyperkalemia, Hyperphosphatemia, and Hypocalcemia (Secondary).
- In ALL Morphology, L1 cells are small and uniform (most common in children), L2 cells are large/heterogeneous (mimic AML), and L3 cells are basophilic with vacuoles (Burkitt type).
- In AML special findings, Gingival hyperplasia/infiltration is most specific for the monocytic subtype (M4/M5).
- In Leukemia Skin findings, "Blueberry muffin" lesions are associated with AML, while "Chloromas" are specifically localized collections of myeloblasts.
- In ALL cytogenetics, t(12;21) is the most common and "good" prognosis, while t(9;22) in ALL is associated with "poor" prognosis.
- In Pediatric vs. Adult Cancers, pediatric cancers are predominantly blast-based (leukemias/sarcomas), while adult cancers are predominantly epithelial (carcinomas).
- In Hodgkin Lymphoma biopsy, Excision biopsy is preferred over needle biopsy to allow for proper subtyping and immunostaining.
- In Burkitt Lymphoma genetics, the characteristic translocation is t(8;14) involving the MYC oncogene.
- In ALL Support, double hydration is standard, but in Hyperleukocytosis, PRBC transfusions are avoided as they worsen blood viscosity and risk stroke.
- In JMML Diagnosis, the patient is usually <2 years old with monocytosis; in CML Diagnosis, the patient can be older and has the Philadelphia chromosome.
- In Hyperuricemia Presentation, patients may show microscopic hematuria due to uric acid crystals in the renal tubules.
QA
| Count | Question | Answer |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | What is the frequency of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | 77% (Most common) |
| 2 | What is the frequency of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? | 11% of childhood leukemias |
| 3 | What is the frequency of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)? | 2-3% of childhood leukemias |
| 4 | What is the frequency of Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)? | 1-2% (Least common) |
| 5 | What is the peak age for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | 2-3 years |
| 6 | When does the incidence of Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML) increase? | Adolescence (15-19 years) |
| 7 | What is the peak age for Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)? | Younger than 2 years |
| 8 | What is the hallmark genetics/translocation for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | t(12;21) ETV6-RUNX1 (Favorable) |
| 9 | What is the hallmark genetic finding in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)? | t(15;17) (Favorable) |
| 10 | What is the genetic hallmark of Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)? | t(9;22) Philadelphia chromosome |
| 11 | What are the hallmark mutations (2) in Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)? | 1) NF1 2) PTPN11 (RAS pathway) |
| 12 | What is the diagnostic blast percentage in bone marrow for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | >25% lymphoblasts |
| 13 | What is the diagnostic blast percentage for Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? | >20% blasts |
| 14 | What is the diagnostic blast percentage for Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML) chronic phase? | <10% blasts |
| 15 | What are the diagnostic blast and cell requirements for Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)? | <20% blasts; requires monocytosis |
| 16 | What are the unique clinical findings (3) in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | 1) Pancytopenia 2) Bone pain 3) Lymphadenopathy |
| 17 | What are the unique findings (4) associated with Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? | 1) DIC 2) Chloromas 3) Gingival infiltration 4) Blueberry muffin lesions |
| 18 | What are the unique laboratory findings (2) in Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)? | 1) Hyperleukocytosis (>100k) 2) Normal/Elevated platelets |
| 19 | What are the unique clinical findings (3) in Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)? | 1) Massive splenomegaly 2) Rashes 3) Hemorrhagic manifestations |
| 20 | What is the standard treatment for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | Multi-phase Chemotherapy (2-3 years) |
| 21 | What are the standard treatments (2) for Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? | 1) Intensive Chemotherapy 2) Stem Cell Transplant |
| 22 | What is the standard treatment drug for Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)? | Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (Imatinib) |
| 23 | What is the curative treatment for Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)? | Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant |
| 24 | Describe the incidence age distribution of Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL). | Bimodal (15-35 and 50 years) |
| 25 | What percentage of pediatric lymphomas is Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)? | 60% (Aggressive/high-grade) |
| 26 | What is the pathologic hallmark of Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)? | Reed-Sternberg cells |
| 27 | Enumerate the common subtypes (4) of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL). | 1) LBL 2) Burkitt 3) DLBCL 4) ALCL |
| 28 | What is the clinical presentation of nodes in Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)? | Painless, firm, rubbery cervical nodes |
| 29 | What are the clinical presentations (3) of Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)? | 1) Rapid mass 2) SVC syndrome 3) Oncologic emergencies |
| 30 | What is the nodal spread pattern in Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)? | Predictable/In-order spread |
| 31 | What is the spread pattern in Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)? | Non-contiguous/Extranodal spread |
| 32 | List the viruses (3) associated with Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL). | 1) EBV 2) CMV 3) HHV-6 |
| 33 | List the viruses (2) associated with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL). | 1) EBV 2) HIV |
| 34 | What are the three most common childhood cancers? | Leukemias, lymphomas, brain tumors |
| 35 | Which types of cancer are more characteristic of adolescents than younger children? | Carcinomas and melanomas |
| 36 | What is the most common type of cancer overall in childhood malignancies? | Leukemia |
| 37 | How do patients with Leukemia or Neuroblastoma with marrow infiltration present (3)? | 1) Fever 2) Persistent infections 3) Neutropenia |
| 38 | What are the hallmark systemic findings (4) in Lymphomas? | 1) FUO 2) Weight loss 3) Night sweats 4) Painless lymphadenopathy |
| 39 | What are common manifestations (2) of Brain tumors due to increased ICP? | 1) Headaches 2) Visual disturbances |
| 40 | What is the signature clinical finding in Retinoblastoma? | Leukokoria (white pupillary reflex) |
| 41 | What metastatic finding is often present in Neuroblastoma? | Periorbital ecchymosis ("raccoon eyes") |
| 42 | What symptoms (3) are associated with Anterior mediastinal masses? | 1) Cough 2) Stridor 3) Tracheobronchial compression |
| 43 | What gastrointestinal findings (2) can occur in Neuroblastoma? | 1) Palpable abdominal mass 2) Diarrhea |
| 44 | What musculoskeletal symptoms (3) define Osteosarcoma/Ewing’s sarcoma? | 1) Bone pain 2) Limping 3) Arthralgia |
| 45 | How does neuroendocrine involvement manifest (2) in Brain tumors/LCH? | 1) Diabetes insipidus 2) Poor growth |
| 46 | What are the primary side effects (3) of Cisplatin (Cp)? | 1) Ototoxicity 2) Nephrotoxicity 3) High emetic potential |
| 47 | What is the most concerning toxicity of Bleomycin (B)? | Lung disturbances (pulmonary fibrosis) |
| 48 | What is the dose-limiting side effect of Doxorubicin (D)? | Cardiac toxicity |
| 49 | What is a common chemotherapy side effect of Methotrexate (Mtx)? | Liver toxicity |
| 50 | What is a major side effect of Irinotecan (Ir)? | Severe diarrhea |
| 51 | Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) accounts for what percentage of childhood malignancies? | 31% |
| 52 | Compare the frequency and prognosis of B-cell vs T-cell Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL). | B-cell: 85% (Better prognosis) T-cell: 15% (Poorer) |
| 53 | Compare the prognostic significance of hyperdiploidy vs hypodiploidy in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL). | Hyperdiploidy: Better prognosis Hypodiploidy: Unfavorable |
| 54 | Describe ALL Morphology L1 Type. | Small, uniform, scan cytoplasm (Most common) |
| 55 | Describe ALL Morphology L2 Type. | Large, heterogeneous, variable size/shape |
| 56 | What are the features of ALL Morphology L3 (Burkitt Type)? | Basophilic cytoplasm, vacuoles, round nuclei |
| 57 | Define Standard Risk ALL risk stratification criteria (2). | 1) Age 1–9.99 years 2) WBC < 50,000/µL |
| 58 | Define High Risk ALL risk stratification criteria (2). | 1) Age <1 or ≥10 2) WBC > 50,000/µL |
| 59 | Why did boys historically have a poorer prognosis in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) (2)? | 1) Testicular relapse 2) Higher T-cell incidence |
| 60 | What is the definitive diagnostic test for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | Bone Marrow Aspiration (>25% lymphoblasts) |
| 61 | Why is Serum LDH measured in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | Assess tumor burden |
| 62 | Why is a Chest X-ray performed in new Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) cases? | Check for anterior mediastinal mass |
| 63 | What is the purpose of Lumbar Puncture in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)? | Assess for CNS involvement |
| 64 | What is the goal of the ALL Induction phase? | Induction of remission |
| 65 | What is the goal of the ALL Consolidation phase? | Reinforce remission (CNS and marrow) |
| 66 | What is the goal of ALL Maintenance chemotherapy? | Reduce overall risk of relapse |
| 67 | List the supportive care measures (3) for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL). | 1) Double Hydration 2) Allopurinol 3) Pneumocystis prophylaxis |
| 68 | What percentage of leukemias in 15-19 year olds is Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML)? | 36% |
| 69 | List risk factors (4) for Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML). | 1) Radiation 2) Down syndrome 3) Fanconi anemia 4) Alkylating agents |
| 70 | What emergency condition is common in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)? | DIC |
| 71 | In which AML subtype is gingival infiltration characteristic? | Monocytic Subtype |
| 72 | What are Chloromas (Granulocytic Sarcomas) in AML? | Leukemic masses in soft tissue |
| 73 | List favorable cytogenetic features (3) in Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML). | 1) t(8;21) 2) t(15;17) 3) Inv (16) |
| 74 | List unfavorable cytogenetics (3) in Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (AML). | 1) Monosomy 7/5 2) 11q23 abnormalities |
| 75 | How long does Imatinib (CML treatment) usually need to be administered? | Lifelong administration |
| 76 | What is the mechanism of Imatinib? | Inhibits BCR-ABL (Tyrosine kinase inhibitor) |
| 77 | What pathway is activated in Juvenile Myelomonocytic Leukemia (JMML)? | RAS oncogene pathway |
| 78 | What is the most common cancer in adolescents aged 15-19? | Lymphoma |
| 79 | Describe the appearance of Reed-Sternberg cells. | Large cells; multilobulated nuclei |
| 80 | Enumerate the Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) "B symptoms" triad. | 1) Fever >38°C 2) Weight loss >10% 3) Drenching night sweats |
| 81 | Define Stage I Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) staging. | Single node region |
| 82 | Define Stage IV Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) staging. | Diffuse metastasis to extralymphatic organs |
| 83 | What percentage of pediatric Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL) patients have Stage III-IV at diagnosis? | 70% |
| 84 | List features (3) of Burkitt Lymphoma (NHL Subtype). | 1) t(8;14) 2) CD19/20 positive 3) "Starry sky" appearance |
| 85 | What oncologic emergencies (2) are associated with Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)? | 1) SVC Syndrome 2) Tumor Lysis Syndrome |
| 86 | In NHL St. Jude Staging, what automatically classifies a mass as Stage III? | Any primary intrathoracic mass |
| 87 | When is radiation therapy used in Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL) (3)? | 1) LBL CNS involvement 2) Airway obstruction 3) Paraplegia |
| 88 | Define Hyperleukocytosis. | Total WBC > 100,000 cells/mm³ |
| 89 | What is the hydration requirement for Hyperleukocytosis Management? | 3L/m²/day (D5 0.45 NaCl) |
| 90 | Why must Red Blood Cell transfusion be avoided in Hyperleukocytosis? | Prevents increasing blood viscosity |
| 91 | What is the target platelet count to prevent hemorrhage in Hyperleukocytosis? | 50,000 |
| 92 | Define Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS). | Rapid release of intracellular metabolites |
| 93 | List the diagnostic criteria (4 metabolic changes) for Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS). | 1) Uric acid >8 2) Potassium >6 3) Phosphorus >2.1 4) Calcium <1.75 |
| 94 | What are the ECG findings (2) of hyperkalemia in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)? | 1) Widened QRS 2) Peaked T-waves |
| 95 | What are the signs (4) of hypocalcemia in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)? | 1) Tetany 2) Seizures 3) Prolonged QTc 4) Trousseau/Chovestek signs |
| 96 | Why is urine alkalinization avoided in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)? | Prevents xanthine/calcium phosphate precipitation |
| 97 | Contrast Allopurinol vs. Rasburicase. | Allopurinol: Blocks new formation Rasburicase: Reduces existing uric acid |
| 98 | When is dialysis indicated in Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS) (3)? | 1) K >6 2) Phos >10 3) Volume overload/anuria |
| 99 | Compare Leukemia vs. ITP presentation. | Leukemia: Pancytopenia + organomegaly ITP: Isolated thrombocytopenia + normal spleen |
| 100 | Contrast CML vs. JMML genetics. | CML: Philadelphia chromosome present JMML: Philadelphia chromosome absent |
| 101 | Compare CML vs. Acute Leukemia platelets. | CML: Normal/Elevated platelets Acute Leukemia: Thrombocytopenia |
| 102 | Compare Hodgkin vs. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma progression. | Hodgkin: Slow/Rubbery Non-Hodgkin: Rapidly progressing mass |
| 103 | Define Stage II vs Stage III Hodgkin Lymphoma Staging. | Stage II: One side of diaphragm Stage III: Both sides of diaphragm |
| 104 | Contrast AML vs ALL leukostasis risk. | AML: Higher risk at lower counts (~200k) |
| 105 | What is the classic metabolic quadriad of Tumor Lysis Syndrome (TLS)? | Hyperuricemia, Hyperkalemia, Hyperphosphatemia, Hypocalcemia |
| 106 | Contrast Pediatric vs. Adult Cancers. | Pediatric: Blast-based (sarcomas) Adult: Epithelial (carcinomas) |
| 107 | What is the preferred biopsy for Hodgkin Lymphoma? | Excision biopsy |
| 108 | What translocation involves the MYC oncogene in Burkitt Lymphoma? | t(8;14) |
| 109 | What causes microscopic hematuria in Hyperuricemia? | Uric acid crystals in tubules |
5.4 - Childhood Cancer
Summary
text
I. PEDIATRIC ABDOMINAL AND SOLID TUMORS
| Feature | Neuroblastoma | Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma) | Hepatoblastoma | Germ Cell Tumors (GCT) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Origin | Sympathetic chain or adrenal medulla (65% abdominal) | Embryonic renal precursor cells | Precursors of hepatocytes | Gonads or Midline structures |
| Peak Age | Most common in infants (<1 yr); 75% <4 years old | 2-3 years old (80% <5 years old) | Mean age 1 year (80% <3 years old) | Bimodal (infancy and adolescence) |
| Common S/Sx | Pain, Raccoon eyes, SubQ nodules, weight loss, Opsoclonus-myoclonus | Asymptomatic abdominal flank mass, HTN, hematuria | Asymptomatic mass, anorexia, weight loss | Midline mass, precocious puberty (if HCG+) |
| Key Imaging | Heterogeneous mass crossing midline; calcifications/hemorrhage | "Claw sign" (normal renal tissue grasping mass); does NOT cross midline | Solid liver mass | Midline locations (Sacrococcygeal, Mediastinal) |
| Tumor Markers | Elevated urine VMA and HVA | None specific | Very high AFP; Thrombocytosis | AFP (Yolk sac), B-HCG (Choriocarcinoma) |
| Pathology | Small round blue cells; Rosettes | Triphasic histology (blastemal, stromal, epithelial) | Epithelial or Mixed (epithelial/mesenchymal) | Teratomas, Germinomas, Yolk Sac, Choriocarcinoma |
| Management | Surgery, Chemo, Radiation; Stem cell rescue for high-risk | Upfront surgery (COG) or Pre-op chemo (SIOP) | Complete resection is curative; Chemo; Transplant | Complete surgical excision + Chemotherapy |
- In pediatric abdominal masses, age is the most important factor for narrowing differentials: Neonates usually have congenital malformations, children 1-5 years usually have Wilms or Neuroblastoma, and adolescents often have lymphoma or germ cell tumors.
- For adolescent females with abdominal masses, practitioners must always consider pregnancy as a differential diagnosis.
- Most pediatric abdominal malignancies are asymptomatic and found accidentally by parents during bathing or by physicians during well-child checkups.
- A thrombocytosis (platelets as high as 1.5 million) in a child with a liver mass is a hallmark finding of Hepatoblastoma due to tumor production of thrombopoietin.
- In Neuroblastoma, periorbital hemorrhage or "raccoon eyes" occurs due to tumor infiltration of the skull or orbital bones.
- Horner’s Syndrome (meiosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, anhidrosis) in Neuroblastoma indicates cervical sympathetic chain involvement.
- Wilms Tumor is associated with specific syndromes including WAGR (Wilms, Aniridia, GU anomalies, Retardation), Denys-Drash, and Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome.
- A biopsy is strictly discouraged/contraindicated in Wilms Tumor as it results in tumor seeding and upstaging of the disease.
- Hypertension in a child with Wilms Tumor is common and is driven by increased renin production or renal artery obstruction.
- Stage MS Neuroblastoma is a unique category for children <18 months where metastasis is confined to skin, liver, or bone marrow and may undergo spontaneous regression.
- Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome predisposes children to Wilms Tumor, Hepatoblastoma, and Adrenal Carcinoma.
- Klinefelter Syndrome is specifically associated with an increased risk of mediastinal Germ Cell Tumors.
- AFP (Alpha-fetoprotein) levels normally remain high in infants until approximately 8 months of age, which must be considered when diagnosing Germ Cell Tumors.
II. BRAIN TUMORS, BONE TUMORS, AND RETINOBLASTOMA
| Feature | Brain Tumors (General) | Retinoblastoma | Osteosarcoma (OS) | Ewing Sarcoma (EWS) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Incidence | 2nd most common pediatric cancer | Most common intraocular tumor | Most common bone tumor; Peak adolescence | 2nd most common bone tumor |
| Key Findings | Morning headache, vomiting, papilledema | Leukocoria (white reflex), Strabismus | Bone pain, swelling at metaphysis | Bone pain, swelling at diaphysis |
| Imaging | MRI with Gadolinium (Standard) | Chalky white-gray retinal mass | "Sunburst" pattern; Codman triangle | "Onion-skinning" (periosteal reaction) |
| Pathology | Location-dependent (Astrocytoma, Medulloblastoma) | Small round blue cells; Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes | Malignant osteoid production | Small round blue cells (PAS positive) |
| Contraindication | N/A | Biopsy is contraindicated | N/A | N/A |
- Brain tumor location varies by age: In the 1st year of life, tumors are typically supratentorial; between 1-10 years, they are primarily infratentorial (e.g., Medulloblastoma); after age 10, they are again mostly supratentorial.
- Parinaud Syndrome (upward gaze palsy, light-near dissociation/Pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupil) is a hallmark of tumors in the pineal region.
- Diencephalic Syndrome, characterized by failure to thrive and emaciation despite normal intake, is seen in tumors of the suprasellar and third ventricular regions.
- Retinoblastoma survivors, particularly those with hereditary forms (RB1/TP53 mutations), have a significantly increased risk of developing Osteosarcoma later in life.
- Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common pediatric soft tissue sarcoma, frequently presenting as a small round blue cell tumor requiring immunohistochemistry (desmin, myogenin) for diagnosis.
- Botryoid Rhabdomyosarcoma is a variant that appears like a "bunch of grapes" and is typically found in mucosal-lined cavities like the vagina or bladder.
- Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma is associated with the PAX-FOXO1 transcript and carries the poorest prognosis among the histologic types.
III. PEDIATRIC BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS
| Component | PRBC (Red Cells) | Platelets | FFP (Plasma) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Dose | 10 - 15 mL/kg | 5 - 10 mL/kg (Pheresis: 1 unit/10kg) | 10 - 15 mL/kg |
| Effect | 10 mL/kg raises Hb by 2 g/dL | Increases count by ~50k-100k | Replaces clotting factors |
| Triggers | Hb <7 g/dL in stable; Hb <10 if symptomatic | <10k (stable); <20k (sepsis/DIC); <50k (surgery) | Bleeding + PT/PTT >1.5x normal; DIC |
- The 30-minute rule in blood banking states that RBC units left at room temperature for >30 minutes cannot be returned to storage for reissue.
- The 4-hour rule requires that the infusion of any blood component must be completed within 4 hours of removal from controlled storage to prevent bacterial proliferation.
- In pediatric blood transfusion, the only compatible IV fluid to be given concomitantly with PRBCs is 0.9% Normal Saline.
- Fever is NOT a contraindication to starting a blood transfusion; however, a temperature rise of >1°C during/after is classified as a Febrile Non-hemolytic Transfusion Reaction.
- Emergency Release of Blood (when group is unknown) should utilize Type O RBCs and Type AB Platelets/Plasma.
- Pediatric Massive Transfusion is defined as replacing >50% of total blood volume in 3 hours or >100% in 24 hours.
- Routine premedication (Acetaminophen/Diphenhydramine) for blood transfusions is generally considered a poor practice as evidence suggests it is not effective prophylaxis for first-time reactions.
- In Hema-Oncology patients, a Lumbar Puncture usually requires a platelet threshold of 20k-40k/uL.
- For Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA), transfusion should never be withheld if life-threatening anemia is present, even if crossmatching is incompatible.
IV. DIFFERENTIATING CLINICAL PEARLS (EXAM FOCUS)
- Neuroblastoma vs. Wilms Tumor: Neuroblastoma occurs in younger children (<1 yr), often crosses the midline, and has calcifications on CT; Wilms occurs older (2-3 yrs), remains in the renal flank (rarely crosses midline), and shows the "Claw Sign."
- Osteosarcoma vs. Ewing Sarcoma Imaging: Osteosarcoma presents with a "Sunburst" pattern at the metaphysis; Ewing Sarcoma presents with "Onion-skinning" at the diaphysis.
- Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) Risk Stratification: Standard Risk is age 1-10 years and WBC <50,000; High Risk is age <1 year or >10 years, or WBC >50,000.
- AFP vs. B-HCG Markers: AFP is elevated in Yolk Sac Tumors and Hepatoblastoma; B-HCG is elevated in Choriocarcinoma.
- Supratentorial vs. Infratentorial Brain Tumors: Infratentorial tumors (Medulloblastoma/Astrocytoma) dominate the 1-10 year old age group; Supratentorial tumors dominate infancy and adolescence.
- Small Round Blue Cells: This is a common histologic finding for Neuroblastoma, Ewing Sarcoma, Rhabdomyosarcoma, and Retinoblastoma; differentiation requires IHC (e.g., desmin for Rhabdo, PAS for Ewing).
- Thrombocytosis in Tumors: If an abdominal mass is present, thrombocytosis points toward Hepatoblastoma; if pancytopenia is present, it suggests bone marrow infiltration (likely Neuroblastoma or Leukemia).
- Tumor Marker "Normal Value" Trap: In Teratomas and Germinomas, tumor markers (AFP/HCG) are typically Normal; do not rule them out based on markers alone.
- Claw Sign vs. Midline Crossing: The Claw Sign is specific for an intra-renal tumor (Wilms); encasing major vessels and crossing the midline is classic for Neuroblastoma.
- Leukocoria (White Reflex): While the differential is broad, in pediatric oncology, this is Retinoblastoma until proven otherwise.
- Opsoclonus-Myoclonus ("Dancing Eyes/Feet"): Although less emphasized in this text, it is a paraneoplastic syndrome highly associated with Neuroblastoma.
- Renin elevation: This is the primary cause of hypertension in Wilms Tumor, distinguishing it from catecholamine-induced hypertension in Neuroblastoma.
- WAGR Syndrome: The "A" stands for Aniridia (absence of iris), which is a major red flag for underlying Wilms Tumor.
- Botryoid variant: If the question mentions a "bunch of grapes" in a child's vagina or bladder, the answer is Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma.
- PRBC Volume Calculation: Always remember 10 mL/kg raises Hb by 2 g/dL; this is a frequent calculation on boards.
- VMA/HVA vs. Hematuria: Urine catecholamines (VMA) are for Neuroblastoma; Hematuria is for Wilms.
- Most Common Malignancy: Leukemia is #1 overall; Brain Tumors are #2 overall; Neuroblastoma is the #1 extracranial solid tumor.
- Age-Specific Findings: If a mass is found in a neonate, it is likely a congenital malformation; if found at age 2, it is likely Wilms.
- Pancytopenia in Solid Tumors: In Neuroblastoma, 75% are metastatic at diagnosis, often involving the bone marrow, causing pancytopenia similar to leukemia.
- Parinaud Syndrome pupil: In Pineal tumors, the pupil reacts to accommodation but not to light (Pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupil).
QA
text
| Count | Question | Answer |
| :--- | :--- | :--- |
| I. | PEDIATRIC ABDOMINAL AND SOLID TUMORS | |
| 1 | What is the origin of Neuroblastoma? | Sympathetic chain/adrenal medulla |
| 2 | What is the origin of Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)? | Embryonic renal precursor cells |
| 3 | What is the origin of Hepatoblastoma? | Precursors of hepatocytes |
| 4 | What are the origins of Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? | Gonads or Midline structures |
| 5 | What is the peak age for Neuroblastoma? | Infants <1 year
75% are <4 years old. |
| 6 | What is the peak age for Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma)? | 2-3 years old
80% are <5 years old. |
| 7 | What is the peak age for Hepatoblastoma? | Mean age 1 year
80% are <3 years old. |
| 8 | What is the peak age for Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? | Bimodal
Infancy and adolescence. |
| 9 | List common signs/symptoms (5): Neuroblastoma | 1) Pain
2) Raccoon eyes
3) SubQ nodules
4) weight loss
5) Opsoclonus-myoclonus |
| 10 | List common signs/symptoms (3): Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma) | 1) Asymptomatic flank mass
2) HTN
3) hematuria |
| 11 | List common signs/symptoms (3): Hepatoblastoma | 1) Asymptomatic mass
2) anorexia
3) weight loss |
| 12 | List common signs/symptoms (2): Germ Cell Tumors (GCT) | 1) Midline mass
2) precocious puberty (if HCG+) |
| 13 | Describe key imaging findings (3): Neuroblastoma | 1) Heterogeneous mass
2) Crossing midline
3) calcifications/hemorrhage |
| 14 | Describe key imaging findings (2): Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma) | 1) "Claw sign"
2) Does NOT cross midline |
| 15 | Describe key imaging finding: Hepatoblastoma | Solid liver mass |
| 16 | Describe key imaging locations (2): Germ Cell Tumors (GCT) | 1) Sacrococcygeal
2) Mediastinal |
| 17 | What are the diagnostic tumor markers: Neuroblastoma | Urine VMA and HVA |
| 18 | What specific tumor marker is used for Wilms Tumor? | None specific |
| 19 | What are the hallmark markers/labs (2): Hepatoblastoma | 1) High AFP
2) Thrombocytosis |
| 20 | What tumor markers are used for Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? (2) | 1) AFP (Yolk sac)
2) B-HCG (Choriocarcinoma) |
| 21 | Describe the pathology findings (2): Neuroblastoma | 1) Small round blue cells
2) Rosettes |
| 22 | Describe the triphasic histology of Wilms Tumor: (3) | Blastemal, stromal, epithelial |
| 23 | Describe the histology of Hepatoblastoma: (2) | Epithelial or Mixed |
| 24 | List the pathologic types of Germ Cell Tumors (GCT): (4) | 1) Teratomas
2) Germinomas
3) Yolk Sac
4) Choriocarcinoma |
| 25 | What is the management for Neuroblastoma? (4) | Surgery, Chemo, Radiation, Stem cell rescue |
| 26 | What is the management for Wilms Tumor? (2) | Upfront surgery or Pre-op chemo |
| 27 | What is the management for Hepatoblastoma? (3) | Complete resection, Chemo, Transplant |
| 28 | What is the management for Germ Cell Tumors (GCT)? (2) | Surgical excision + Chemotherapy |
| 29 | What is the most important factor for narrowing differentials in pediatric abdominal masses? | Age |
| 30 | Differentials for pediatric abdominal masses: Neonates | Congenital malformations |
| 31 | Differentials for pediatric abdominal masses: Children 1-5 years | Wilms or Neuroblastoma |
| 32 | Differentials for pediatric abdominal masses: Adolescents | Lymphoma or germ cell tumors |
| 33 | What differential must be considered for adolescent females with abdominal masses? | Pregnancy |
| 34 | How are most pediatric abdominal malignancies discovered? | Accidentally |
| 35 | What lab finding in a liver mass child is a hallmark of Hepatoblastoma? | Thrombocytosis
Due to tumor production of thrombopoietin. |
| 36 | What causes "raccoon eyes" in Neuroblastoma? | Tumor infiltration
Of the skull or orbital bones. |
| 37 | List the components of Horner’s Syndrome in Neuroblastoma: (4) | Meiosis, ptosis, enophthalmos, anhidrosis |
| 38 | What does Horner's Syndrome indicate in Neuroblastoma? | Cervical sympathetic chain involvement |
| 39 | List syndromes associated with Wilms Tumor: (3) | 1) WAGR
2) Denys-Drash
3) Beckwith-Wiedemann |
| 40 | Why is biopsy contraindicated in Wilms Tumor? | Tumor seeding
Leads to upstaging of the disease. |
| 41 | What drives Hypertension in Wilms Tumor? | 1) Renin production
2) Renal artery obstruction |
| 42 | Define Stage MS Neuroblastoma: | Metastasis confined to skin/liver/marrow |
| 43 | List malignancies associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome: (3) | Wilms, Hepatoblastoma, Adrenal Carcinoma |
| 44 | What tumor is specifically associated with Klinefelter Syndrome? | Mediastinal Germ Cell Tumor |
| 45 | Until what age do AFP levels normally remain high in infants? | 8 months of age |
| II. | BRAIN TUMORS, BONE TUMORS, AND RETINOBLASTOMA | |
| 46 | What is the incidence rank of Brain Tumors in pediatric cancer? | 2nd most common |
| 47 | What is the incidence of Retinoblastoma? | Most common intraocular tumor |
| 48 | What is the incidence of Osteosarcoma (OS)? | Most common bone tumor |
| 49 | What is the incidence rank of Ewing Sarcoma (EWS)? | 2nd most common bone tumor |
| 50 | List key findings (3): Brain Tumors (General) | 1) Morning headache
2) vomiting
3) papilledema |
| 51 | List key findings (2): Retinoblastoma | 1) Leukocoria (white reflex)
2) Strabismus |
| 52 | Describe findings for Osteosarcoma (OS): (2) | 1) Bone pain
2) Metaphysis swelling |
| 53 | Describe findings for Ewing Sarcoma (EWS): (2) | 1) Bone pain
2) Diaphysis swelling |
| 54 | What is the standard imaging for Brain Tumors? | MRI with Gadolinium |
| 55 | Describe imaging for Retinoblastoma: | Chalky white-gray retinal mass |
| 56 | Describe imaging for Osteosarcoma (OS): (2) | 1) "Sunburst" pattern
2) Codman triangle |
| 57 | Describe imaging for Ewing Sarcoma (EWS): | "Onion-skinning" (periosteal reaction) |
| 58 | What defines the pathology of Retinoblastoma? (2) | 1) Small round blue cells
2) Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes |
| 59 | What defines the pathology of Osteosarcoma (OS)? | Malignant osteoid production |
| 60 | What defines the pathology of Ewing Sarcoma (EWS)? | Small round blue cells (PAS+) |
| 61 | What procedure is strictly contraindicated in Retinoblastoma? | Biopsy |
| 62 | Typical location of Brain tumor: 1st year of life | Supratentorial |
| 63 | Typical location of Brain tumor: 1-10 years old | Infratentorial (e.g., Medulloblastoma) |
| 64 | Typical location of Brain tumor: After age 10 | Supratentorial |
| 65 | List the features of Parinaud Syndrome: (2) | 1) Upward gaze palsy
2) light-near dissociation |
| 66 | Parinaud Syndrome is a hallmark of tumors in what region? | Pineal region |
| 67 | Describe Diencephalic Syndrome features: (2) | 1) Failure to thrive
2) Emaciation |
| 68 | Diencephalic Syndrome is seen in tumors of what regions? | Suprasellar/third ventricular regions |
| 69 | Retinoblastoma survivors have an increased risk of what later in life? | Osteosarcoma |
| 70 | What is the most common pediatric soft tissue sarcoma? | Rhabdomyosarcoma |
| 71 | Identify IHC markers (2) for Rhabdomyosarcoma: | 1) Desmin
2) myogenin |
| 72 | Describe Botryoid Rhabdomyosarcoma: | "Bunch of grapes" appearance |
| 73 | Which histology of Rhabdomyosarcoma has the poorest prognosis? | Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma |
| 74 | What transcript is associated with Alveolar Rhabdomyosarcoma? | PAX-FOXO1 transcript |
| III. | PEDIATRIC BLOOD TRANSFUSIONS | |
| 75 | What is the dose of PRBC (Red Cells)? | 10 - 15 mL/kg |
| 76 | What is the dose of Platelets? | 5 - 10 mL/kg |
| 77 | What is the dose of FFP (Plasma)? | 10 - 15 mL/kg |
| 78 | What is the effect of PRBC (Red Cells) at 10 mL/kg? | Raises Hb by 2 g/dL |
| 79 | What is the transfusion trigger for PRBC (Red Cells) if stable? | Hb <7 g/dL |
| 80 | Identify triggers (3) for Platelet transfusion: | 1) <10k stable
2) <20k sepsis
3) <50k surgery |
| 81 | What is the trigger for FFP (Plasma) transfusion? | Bleeding + PT/PTT >1.5x normal |
| 82 | Define the 30-minute rule for RBC units: | Cannot be returned to storage |
| 83 | Define the 4-hour rule for blood transfusion: | Must be completed within 4 hours |
| 84 | What is the only compatible IV fluid for pediatric blood transfusion? | 0.9% Normal Saline |
| 85 | Define Febrile Non-hemolytic Transfusion Reaction: | Temperature rise >1°C |
| 86 | Emergency Release of Blood: Which types for unknown groups? | Type O RBCs; Type AB Platelets |
| 87 | Define Pediatric Massive Transfusion: | Replacing >100% volume in 24 hours |
| 88 | Why is routine premedication for blood transfusion considered poor practice? | Evidence suggests it is ineffective prophylaxis |
| 89 | Platelet threshold for Lumbar Puncture in Hema-Onco? | 20k-40k/uL |
| 90 | Policy for Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA) transfusion: | Never withhold if life-threatening |
| IV. | DIFFERENTIATING CLINICAL PEARLS | |
| 91 | Neuroblastoma vs. Wilms Tumor location: | Neuroblastoma crosses midline; Wilms renal flank |
| 92 | Osteosarcoma vs. Ewing Sarcoma pattern: | Osteosarcoma sunburst; Ewing onion-skinning |
| 93 | ALL: Criteria for Standard risk (2) | 1) Age 1-10 years
2) WBC <50,000 |
| 94 | AFP vs. B-HCG: Which tumor marker for Yolk Sac? | AFP |
| 95 | Supratentorial vs. Infratentorial: Dominant age 1-10 years | Infratentorial |
| 96 | Small Round Blue Cells: List examples (4) | Neuroblastoma, Ewing, Rhabdo, Retino |
| 97 | Abdominal mass + thrombocytosis suggests: | Hepatoblastoma |
| 98 | Status of AFP/HCG in Teratomas and Germinomas: | Typically normal |
| 99 | What finding is specific for Wilms Tumor imaging? | Claw Sign |
| 100 | What is the significance of Leukocoria in pediatric oncology? | Retinoblastoma until proven otherwise |
| 101 | Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with Neuroblastoma: | Opsoclonus-Myoclonus ("Dancing Eyes/Feet") |
| 102 | Primary cause of hypertension in Wilms Tumor: | Renin elevation |
| 103 | What does the "A" stand for in WAGR Syndrome? | Aniridia (absence of iris) |
| 104 | Pediatric mass described as a "bunch of grapes": | Botryoid Rhabdomyosarcoma |
| 105 | Formula for PRBC Volume Calculation effect: | 10 mL/kg raises Hb by 2 g/dL |
| 106 | VMA/HVA vs. Hematuria: Which points to Wilms? | Hematuria |
| 107 | What is the #1 extracranial solid tumor? | Neuroblastoma |
| 108 | If an abdominal mass is found in a neonate, it is likely: | Congenital malformation |
| 109 | Reason for pancytopenia in Neuroblastoma: | Bone marrow infiltration |
| 110 | Describe the pupil in Parinaud Syndrome: | Pseudo-Argyll Robertson pupil
Reacts to accommodation, not to light. |
5.5 - Pediatric Resuscitation
Summary
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SYSTEMATIC APPROACH TO PEDIATRIC CRITICAL CARE
| Topic | Key Information |
|---|---|
| Main Goal | Cardiopulmonary arrest prevention is the primary objective when assessing a critically ill or injured child. |
| Common Etiology | In pediatrics, the most common cause of cardiac arrest is secondary to pulmonary or respiratory causes. |
| Methodology | The systematic approach is a continuous sequence consisting of evaluation, assessment, and management (the RARARA cycle: reassess, assess, reassess). |
| Sequence of Deterioration | Early recognition is vital because pediatric conditions often transition from reversible to irreversible states if not treated promptly. |
| Objective Data | Initial findings that serve as a baseline for stabilization include vital signs, urine output, and sensorium. |
ASSESSMENT TOOLS (INITIAL, PRIMARY, SECONDARY, TERTIARY)
| Topic | Component / Mnemonic | Definition and Details |
|---|---|---|
| Initial Assessment | ABC | A visual and auditory tool used in the first few seconds to assess Appearance (consciousness), Breathing (effort/sounds), and Color (pink, pale, mottled, cyanotic). |
| Primary Assessment | ABCDE | A detailed evaluation of Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, and Exposure. |
| Secondary Assessment | S-A-M-P-L-E | Focuses on a resuscitation-oriented history: Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, and Events preceding illness. |
| Tertiary Assessment | Diagnostics | Includes Laboratory tests, Radiologic imaging, and other specialized diagnostics to confirm the working impression. |
PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: AIRWAY AND BREATHING DETAILS
| Condition type | Physical Findings |
|---|---|
| Upper Airway Obstruction (UAO) | Characterized by stridor; common causes include Croup, Epiglottitis, or foreign body. |
| Lower Airway Obstruction (LAO) | Characterized by wheezing; common causes include Asthma and Bronchiolitis. |
| Lung Parenchymal Disease (LPD) | Characterized by crackles (rales); common causes include Pneumonia and Pulmonary Edema. |
| Disordered Control of Breathing (DCB) | Characterized by abnormal breathing patterns or no breath sounds due to neurologic issues like TBI, GBS, or drug overdose. |
- An Airway is classified as Clear (no intervention), Maintainable (needs positioning/suctioning), or Unmaintainable (needs intubation).
- The minimum parameters for Breathing assessment are:
- Rate of breathing
- Effort of breathing
- Air entry/Breath sounds
- Oxygen saturation
- In Respiratory Distress, signs include increased work of breathing, nasal flaring, head bobbing, grunting, and retractions.
- Respiratory Failure occurs when the body's metabolic demand for oxygen is not met by breathing, eventually leading to respiratory arrest.
PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: CIRCULATION, DISABILITY, AND EXPOSURE
| System | Parameters / Scale | Key Diagnostic Points |
|---|---|---|
| Circulation | 5 Minimums | Includes Heart rate, Blood pressure, Central/Peripheral pulses, Capillary refill time (CRT), and Urine output. |
| Disability | AVPU | Measures level of consciousness: Alert, Responds to Voice, Responds to Pain, or Unconscious. |
| Disability | HGT/Glucose | Blood sugar check is a mandatory part of assessing neurologic disability in a critical child. |
| Exposure | Visual Survey | Immediate check for Fever (>37.8 C), Rashes, or Bruises. |
- Compensated Shock manifests with signs of poor perfusion (tachycardia, delayed CRT) but maintaining a normal systolic BP for age.
- Hypotensive Shock is characterized by impaired perfusion and a systolic BP below the lower limit for age.
MANAGEMENT OF RESPIRATORY DISTRESS AND FAILURE
| Device / Intervention | Specification | Details |
|---|---|---|
| Oxygen: Nasal Cannula | 0.25 – 4 L/min | Used for mild oxygen requirements. |
| Oxygen: Simple Mask | 5 – 10 L/min | Moderate delivery of FiO2. |
| Oxygen: Non-Rebreathing Mask | 11 – 15 L/min | Highest FiO2 for non-invasive delivery; used in shock or severe distress. |
| Maneuver: Head Tilt-Chin Lift | Non-Trauma | Preferred for opening the airway in victims without suspected cervical spine injury. |
| Maneuver: Jaw Thrust | Trauma | Mandatory for opening the airway when cervical spine injury is suspected. |
| Rescue Breaths | Rate | Give 20 to 30 breaths per minute (1 breath every 2-3 seconds) for a child with a pulse but inadequate breathing. |
- The Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA) is used ONLY for unconscious patients without a gag reflex; size is measured from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible.
- The Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA) is for conscious or semi-conscious patients with a gag reflex; size is measured from the tragus of the ear to the tip of the nose.
- NPA Contraindications include basal skull fractures (potential cranial entry) or coagulation defects.
- The “C-E” grip is the standard technique for Bag-Mask Ventilation (BMV) to ensure a tight seal and jaw lift.
- In Bag-Mask Ventilation, the bag should only be squeezed enough to see chest rise; over-squeezing can cause barotrauma (pneumothorax).
ENDOTRACHEAL INTUBATION (ETT)
- Endotracheal Intubation is the most secure airway method; indications include GCS < 8, failure to oxygenate/ventilate, or anticipatory (e.g., GBS).
- The SOAP MM mnemonic for intubation preparation stands for:
- Suction
- Oxygen
- Airway (equipment/size)
- People
- Monitor
- Medications
- The Formula for Cuffed ETT size is (Age in Years / 4) + 3.5.
- The Formula for Uncuffed ETT size is (Age in Years / 4) + 4.
- The Estimated ETT Depth (lip-to-tip) is calculated as ETT Size x 3.
- The DOPE Mnemonic is used to troubleshoot sudden deterioration in an intubated patient:
- D: Displacement
- O: Obstruction
- P: Pneumothorax
- E: Equipment failure
SHOCK: TYPES AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
| Type of Shock | Primary Problem | Common Causes/Etiologies |
|---|---|---|
| Hypovolemic Shock | Inadequate blood/fluid volume | AGE (vomiting/diarrhea), hemorrhage, Nephrotic syndrome. |
| Distributive Shock | Inappropriate distribution (vasodilation) | Sepsis, Anaphylaxis, Neurogenic shock, Drug overdose. |
| Cardiogenic Shock | Impaired cardiac contractility | CHD, Arrhythmias, Myocarditis, RHD. |
| Obstructive Shock | Obstructed blood flow | Tension pneumothorax, Cardiac tamponade, Aortic stenosis. |
- The earliest compensatory mechanism for decreased cardiac output in shock is Tachycardia.
- Septic Shock is unique as it encompasses three shock types: hypovolemic (capillary leak), distributive (vasodilation via NO), and cardiogenic (inflammatory depression of contractility).
- Shock Physiology involves the equation: Blood Pressure = Cardiac Output x Systemic Vascular Resistance.
- In Dissociative Shock (e.g., CO poisoning), O2 delivery is impaired because O2 cannot be released from hemoglobin to tissues, despite normal circulation.
MANAGEMENT OF SEPTIC SHOCK (TIME-SENSITIVE)
- Initial Fluid Bolus in Shock is 10-20 cc/kg given over 15 to 20 minutes.
- The Preferred Fluid Order for shock resuscitation is:
- Sterofundin (Isotonic electrolyte solution)
- Acetated Ringer's (Buffer usable directly)
- Lactated Ringer's (Liver must process buffer)
- NSS (Risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis)
- If IV access cannot be established within the first 90 seconds, an Intraosseous (IO) line should be inserted immediately.
- Signs of Fluid Overload/Congestion to monitor during resuscitation include new-onset crackles, hepatomegaly, and edema.
- Inotropes (Epinephrine/Norepinephrine) are indicated if the patient remains in shock after 3 fluid boluses (fluid-resistant shock).
- Hydrocortisone (5mg/kg) is used in catecholamine-resistant shock to treat potential adrenal crisis/insufficiency.
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS AND COMPARISONS
- Upper vs. Lower Airway Obstruction: Upper presents with stridor (inspiratory), while Lower presents with wheezing (expiratory).
- Compensated vs. Hypotensive Shock: Compensated has Normal SBP, whereas Hypotensive has Low SBP; both show poor perfusion signs (tachycardia, delayed CRT).
- OPA vs. NPA: OPA is for patients WITHOUT a gag reflex; NPA is for patients WITH a gag reflex.
- Head Tilt-Chin Lift vs. Jaw Thrust: Head Tilt is for medical cases; Jaw Thrust is for suspected Trauma/C-spine injuries.
- Cuffed vs. Uncuffed ETT: Cuffed is now generally recommended to prevent air leaks and ensure better ventilation; Uncuffed size formula adds +4 to age/4 while Cuffed adds +3.5.
- Hypovolemic vs. Distributive Shock Preload: In Hypovolemic, preload is low due to loss of volume; in Distributive, preload is low due to "relative" hypovolemia from massive vasodilation.
- Respiratory Distress vs. Failure: Distress includes increased effort (tachypnea, flaring); Failure includes inadequate gas exchange (hypoxemia, hypercarbia) and can lead to gasping or agonal breathing.
- LR vs. AR Fluids: Acetated Ringer's is preferred in shock because the buffer is used directly; Lactated Ringer's requires liver perfusion to convert lactate to bicarbonate.
- Cardiac Arrest Etiology (Adult vs. Peds): Pediatric arrest is usually Respiratory/Secondary; Adult arrest is usually Sudden Cardiac/Primary.
- Displacement (D) vs. Obstruction (O) in DOPE: Displacement is the tube moving out (check with breath sounds/XR); Obstruction is the tube blocked by secretions or biting (check with suction catheter).
- Pneumothorax vs. Ventilator Failure in DOPE: Pneumothorax results in deterioration regardless of bagging/ventilator; Ventilator Failure shows improvement when switched from the machine to manual bagging.
- Normal SBP Calculation (1-10 years): Calculated as (Age x 2) + 70; anything below this is hypotensive.
- LPD vs. DCB Auscultation: Lung Parenchymal Disease has crackles/rales; Disordered Control of Breathing may have entirely absent or irregular breath sounds.
- Septic Shock vs. Other Distributive Shocks: Sepsis typically presents with a history of fever/infection, whereas Anaphylaxis presents with allergen exposure and Neurogenic with trauma history.
- Preload vs. Afterload Manipulation: Fluid boluses increase Preload; Vasopressors (like Epinephrine) increase Afterload via vasoconstriction.
- Pneumothorax vs. Gastric Distension: Pneumothorax shows decreased breath sounds and hyper-resonance; Gastric Distension (from ETT in esophagus) shows gurgling in the stomach and abdominal swelling.
- Inotropes vs. Steroids in Shock: Inotropes (Epi) increase contractility/tone directly; Steroids (Hydrocortisone) are given if inotropes fail to address potential adrenal insufficiency.
- Nasal Cannula vs. NRM Flow: Cannula is low flow (max 4L); NRM is high flow (requires 11-15L to keep reservoir bag inflated).
- Initial vs. Primary Assessment: Initial is a "first-look" (ABC only); Primary is a hands-on examination (ABCDE with vitals).
- Tachycardia Interpretation: Tachycardia is the first sign of compensation in shock but must be differentiated from pain, fever, or medication effects (e.g., Albuterol).
QA
text
SYSTEMATIC APPROACH TO PEDIATRIC CRITICAL CARE
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | What is the primary objective of the Systematic Approach to Pediatric Critical Care? | Cardiopulmonary arrest prevention |
| 2 | What is the Common Etiology for pediatric cardiac arrest? | Pulmonary or respiratory causes |
| 3 | Define the RARARA cycle in the Methodology of pediatric care. | Reassess, assess, reassess |
| 4 | Why is early recognition vital in the pediatric Sequence of Deterioration? | Conditions transition from reversible to irreversible |
| 5 | What are the Objective Data points used as a baseline for stabilization? (3) | Vital signs, Urine output, Sensorium |
ASSESSMENT TOOLS (INITIAL, PRIMARY, SECONDARY, TERTIARY)
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 6 | Describe the components of the visual/auditory Initial Assessment. (3) | Appearance, Breathing, Color |
| 7 | What is evaluated in the Primary Assessment mnemonic ABCDE? (5) | Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure |
| 8 | Define the Secondary Assessment mnemonic S-A-M-P-L-E. (6) | Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events |
| 9 | What does the Tertiary Assessment consist of? | Laboratory and radiologic diagnostics |
| 10 | In the Initial Assessment, what specific colors are evaluated? (4) | Pink, pale, mottled, cyanotic |
PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: AIRWAY AND BREATHING DETAILS
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 11 | What finding characterizes Upper Airway Obstruction (UAO)? | Stridor |
| 12 | Identify common causes of Upper Airway Obstruction (UAO). (3) | Croup, Epiglottitis, Foreign body |
| 13 | What finding characterizes Lower Airway Obstruction (LAO)? | Wheezing |
| 14 | Identify common causes of Lower Airway Obstruction (LAO). (2) | Asthma, Bronchiolitis |
| 15 | What finding characterizes Lung Parenchymal Disease (LPD)? | Crackles (rales) |
| 16 | Identify common causes of Lung Parenchymal Disease (LPD). (2) | Pneumonia, Pulmonary Edema |
| 17 | What findings characterize Disordered Control of Breathing (DCB)? | Abnormal patterns or no breath sounds |
| 18 | Identify common causes of Disordered Control of Breathing (DCB). (3) | TBI, GBS, Drug overdose |
| 19 | How is a Maintainable Airway defined? | Needs positioning or suctioning |
| 20 | How is an Unmaintainable Airway defined? | Needs intubation |
| 21 | List the minimum parameters for Breathing assessment. (4) | Rate, Effort, Air entry, Oxygen saturation |
| 22 | Identify assessment signs of Respiratory Distress. (5) | Nasal flaring, Head bobbing, Grunting, Retractions, Increased work |
| 23 | Define Respiratory Failure. | Oxygen metabolic demand not met |
| 24 | What is the eventual result of untreated Respiratory Failure? | Respiratory arrest |
| 25 | In Breathing assessment, what does air entry refer to? | Breath sounds |
PRIMARY ASSESSMENT: CIRCULATION, DISABILITY, AND EXPOSURE
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 26 | List the 5 Minimums for Circulation assessment. | Heart rate, Blood pressure, Pulses, Capillary refill, Urine output |
| 27 | Define the AVPU scale components for Disability. (4) | Alert, Voice, Pain, Unconscious |
| 28 | What is a mandatory part of Neurologic Disability assessment besides AVPU? | Blood sugar (HGT/Glucose) |
| 29 | What is checked during the visual survey for Exposure? (3) | Fever, Rashes, Bruises |
| 30 | Define Compensated Shock based on perfusion and BP. | Poor perfusion, Normal systolic BP |
| 31 | Define Hypotensive Shock based on BP. | Systolic BP below lower limit |
| 32 | What temperature indicates Fever in the Exposure assessment? | >37.8 C |
| 33 | In Circulation 5 Minimums, what pulses should be checked? | Central and peripheral pulses |
| 34 | What does CRT stand for in circulation assessment? | Capillary refill time |
| 35 | Why is HGT/Glucose mandatory in critical care assessment? | Assesses neurologic disability |
MANAGEMENT OF RESPIRATORY DISTRESS AND FAILURE
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 36 | What is the flow rate for Nasal Cannula oxygen delivery? | 0.25 – 4 L/min |
| 37 | What is the flow rate for Simple Mask oxygen delivery? | 5 – 10 L/min |
| 38 | What is the flow rate for Non-Rebreathing Mask oxygen delivery? | 11 – 15 L/min |
| 39 | Which oxygen device provides the Highest FiO2 non-invasively? | Non-Rebreathing Mask |
| 40 | When is the Head Tilt-Chin Lift maneuver preferred? | Non-Trauma cases |
| 41 | When is the Jaw Thrust maneuver mandatory? | Suspected cervical spine injury |
| 42 | What is the recommended Rescue Breath Rate for a child with a pulse? | 20 to 30 breaths per minute |
| 43 | What is the timing for Rescue Breaths in pediatrics? | 1 breath every 2-3 seconds |
| 44 | Define Airway Management in trauma. | Jaw Thrust maneuver |
| 45 | What is the indication for Simple Mask usage? | Moderate FiO2 requirements |
AIRWAY ADJUNCTS AND VENTILATION
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 46 | What is the primary indication for using an Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA)? | Unconscious without gag reflex |
| 47 | How is the OPA size measured? | Mouth corner to mandible angle |
| 48 | What is the primary indication for a Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA)? | Conscious/semi-conscious with gag reflex |
| 49 | How is the NPA size measured? | Ear tragus to nose tip |
| 50 | List 2 contraindications for NPA insertion. | Basal skull fracture, coagulation defects |
| 51 | What is the purpose of the C-E grip technique? | Tight seal and jaw lift |
| 52 | During Bag-Mask Ventilation (BMV), how much should the bag be squeezed? | Enough to see chest rise |
| 53 | What is a complication of BMV over-squeezing? | Barotrauma (pneumothorax) |
| 54 | Name the standard technique for Bag-Mask Ventilation. | C-E grip |
| 55 | Why is OPA contraindicated in conscious patients? | Presence of gag reflex |
ENDOTRACHEAL INTUBATION (ETT)
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 56 | What are the clinical indications for Endotracheal Intubation? (3) | GCS < 8, Oxygenation/ventilation failure, Anticipatory |
| 57 | List the components of the SOAP MM mnemonic. (6) | Suction, Oxygen, Airway, People, Monitor, Medications |
| 58 | What is the Cuffed ETT size formula? | (Age in Years / 4) + 3.5 |
| 59 | What is the Uncuffed ETT size formula? | (Age in Years / 4) + 4 |
| 60 | How is the Estimated ETT Depth (lip-to-tip) calculated? | ETT Size x 3 |
| 61 | What does DOPE stand for in ETT troubleshooting? (4) | Displacement, Obstruction, Pneumothorax, Equipment failure |
| 62 | In DOPE, how is Displacement (D) verified? | Breath sounds or X-ray |
| 63 | In DOPE, how is Obstruction (O) checked? | Suction catheter |
| 64 | In DOPE, how is Equipment failure (E) identified? | Improved status after manual bagging |
| 65 | Define the most secure Airway method. | Endotracheal Intubation |
SHOCK: TYPES AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 66 | What is the primary problem in Hypovolemic Shock? | Inadequate blood/fluid volume |
| 67 | List common causes of Hypovolemic Shock. (3) | Hemorrhage, AGE (vomiting/diarrhea), Nephrotic syndrome |
| 68 | What is the primary problem in Distributive Shock? | Vasodilation (inappropriate distribution) |
| 69 | List common causes of Distributive Shock. (4) | Sepsis, Anaphylaxis, Neurogenic, Drug overdose |
| 70 | What is the primary problem in Cardiogenic Shock? | Impaired cardiac contractility |
| 71 | List common causes of Cardiogenic Shock. (4) | CHD, Arrhythmias, Myocarditis, RHD |
| 72 | What is the primary problem in Obstructive Shock? | Obstructed blood flow |
| 73 | List common causes of Obstructive Shock. (3) | Tension pneumothorax, Cardiac tamponade, Aortic stenosis |
| 74 | What is the earliest compensatory mechanism for decreased output in shock? | Tachycardia |
| 75 | Why is Septic Shock unique? | Combines hypovolemic, distributive, cardiogenic |
| 76 | Define the Shock Physiology equation. | BP = CO x SVR |
| 77 | Define Dissociative Shock pathophysiology. | O2 cannot release from hemoglobin |
MANAGEMENT OF SEPTIC SHOCK (TIME-SENSITIVE)
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 78 | What is the amount/time for the Initial Fluid Bolus in Shock? | 10-20 cc/kg over 15-20 mins |
| 79 | Rank the Preferred Fluid Order for shock resuscitation. (4) | Sterofundin, AR, LR, NSS |
| 80 | Why is Acetated Ringer's (AR) preferred over LR? | Buffer usable directly |
| 81 | When should an Intraosseous (IO) line be inserted? | IV access fails (90 seconds) |
| 82 | List signs of Fluid Overload/Congestion. (3) | Crackles, Hepatomegaly, Edema |
| 83 | When are Inotropes (Epi/Norepi) indicated in shock? | Fluid-resistant shock (3 boluses) |
| 84 | What is the dose for Hydrocortisone in catecholamine-resistant shock? | 5mg/kg |
| 85 | Why is NSS fourth in fluid preference for shock? | Risk of hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis |
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS AND COMPARISONS
| Count | Q | A |
|---|---|---|
| 86 | Compare Upper vs. Lower Airway Obstruction findings. | Upper: Stridor; Lower: Wheezing |
| 87 | Compare Compensated vs. Hypotensive Shock BP. | Compensated: Normal SBP; Hypotensive: Low SBP |
| 88 | Compare OPA vs. NPA patient status. | OPA: No gag; NPA: Has gag |
| 89 | Compare Head Tilt-Chin Lift vs. Jaw Thrust use. | Head Tilt: Medical; Jaw Thrust: Trauma |
| 90 | Compare Cuffed vs. Uncuffed ETT recommendations. | Cuffed: prevents leaks/better ventilation |
| 91 | Compare Hypovolemic vs. Distributive Shock preload. | Hypovolemic: Volume loss; Distributive: Relative hypovolemia |
| 92 | Compare Respiratory Distress vs. Failure effort. | Distress: Increased effort; Failure: Inadequate gas exchange |
| 93 | Compare LR vs. AR Fluids buffer processing. | AR: Used directly; LR: Needs liver perfusion |
| 94 | Compare Cardiac Arrest Etiology in adults vs. peds. | Adults: Primary/Cardiac; Peds: Secondary/Respiratory |
| 95 | Compare Displacement (D) vs. Obstruction (O) in DOPE. | D: Tube out; O: Tube blocked |
| 96 | Compare Pneumothorax vs. Ventilator Failure in DOPE. | Pneumothorax: Deteriorates; Failure: Improves with bagging |
| 97 | What is the Normal SBP Calculation for ages 1-10? | (Age x 2) + 70 |
| 98 | Compare LPD vs. DCB Auscultation. | LPD: Crackles; DCB: Absent/Irregular sounds |
| 99 | Compare Septic Shock vs. Other Distributive Shocks history. | Sepsis: Fever/Infection; Anaphylaxis: Allergen; Neurogenic: Trauma |
| 100 | Compare Preload vs. Afterload Manipulation instruments. | Bolus: Preload; Vasopressors: Afterload |
| 101 | Compare Pneumothorax vs. Gastric Distension signs. | Pneumo: Hyper-resonance; Gastric: Gurgling/swelling |
| 102 | Compare Inotropes vs. Steroids function in shock. | Inotropes: Contractility; Steroids: Adrenal insufficiency |
| 103 | Compare Nasal Cannula vs. NRM Flow limits. | Cannula: Max 4L; NRM: 11-15L |
| 104 | Compare Initial vs. Primary Assessment scope. | Initial: First-look; Primary: Hands-on/Vitals |
| 105 | How must Tachycardia Interpretation be differentiated? | From pain, fever, or medications |
5.6 - Neurologic Emergencies and Stabilization
Summary
RAPID SEQUENCE INTUBATION (RSI) AND AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
| Feature | Details |
|---|---|
| Most Important Part | Preparation of materials (Lecturer emphasis). |
| Indications | 1. Unable to maintain airway patency or protect against aspiration. 2. Failure to maintain adequate oxygenation. 3. Failure to control blood CO2 levels. 4. Sedation/paralysis required for a procedure. 5. Anticipated deteriorating course. |
| Absolute Contraindication | Known complete airway obstruction (e.g., severe subglottic stenosis); requires emergency cricothyroidotomy or tracheostomy. |
| Difficult Airway Predictors | Limited mouth opening, limited neck mobility, micrognathia (small jaw), short neck, or history of difficult intubation. |
| Preoxygenation Goal | Maintain O2 saturation >95% using 100% FiO2 for 3 mins (spontaneous) or bag-mask (apneic). |
| Anatomical Positioning | Sniffing position (supine); in infants/neonates, place a cloth behind shoulders to prevent head flexion due to the large occiput. |
PHARMACOLOGY OF RSI
| Drug Category | Agent | Key Flashcard Facts |
|---|---|---|
| Pretreatment | Atropine | Given to blunt the vagal reflex (bradycardia) and reduce airway secretions; recommended for children ≤1yr, or <5yrs if receiving succinylcholine. |
| Pretreatment | Lidocaine | Given to minimize sudden increases in Intracranial Pressure (ICP) during intubation. |
| Induction (Sedative) | Etomidate | Safe for hemodynamic instability; neuroprotective; do NOT use routinely in septic shock (causes transient adrenal suppression). |
| Induction (Sedative) | Ketamine | DOC for asthma/bronchospasm; hemodynamically stable (better for shock than midazolam); may increase oral secretions. |
| Induction (Sedative) | Propofol | Causes hypotension (avoid in shock); useful for status epilepticus or stable patients with neuro problems. |
| Induction (Sedative) | Midazolam | Benzodiazepine of choice; may cause hypotension; onset takes 2-3 minutes. |
| Analgesia | Fentanyl | Most common analgesic; SE include respiratory depression and chest wall rigidity (if given too fast). |
| Paralytic | Rocuronium | DOC for muscle relaxation; ensures rapid paralysis; must insert tube immediately as breathing stops. |
| Paralytic | Succinylcholine | Rapid onset; Contraindicated in: hyperkalemia, burns/crush injuries (after 48-72h), malignant hyperthermia, and chronic muscle disease (Duchenne/Becker). |
- Atropine is used in Rapid Sequence Intubation to prevent bradycardia and decrease secretions which might obstruct the airway.
- Lidocaine is administered during Intubation to prevent the patient from straining, which would otherwise increase intracranial pressure and risk herniation.
- The Sniffing Position is the gold standard for patient alignment during intubation, often requiring a shoulder roll in infants to compensate for a prominent occiput.
- The Sellick Maneuver involves applying pressure to the cricoid cartilage to visualize the glottis or prevent aspiration; it is NOT a routine maneuver and is used only if visualization is difficult.
- Straight blades (Miller) are typically used in pediatric intubation to address the floppy epiglottis, while curved blades (Macintosh) are more common in adults.
- Confirmation of Endotracheal Tube (ETT) placement is achieved via auscultation, observation of chest rise, vital sign monitoring, and ultimately a chest X-ray.
INTRAOSSEOUS (IO) CANNULATION
| Feature | Details |
|---|---|
| Mechanism | Accesses non-collapsible medullary sinuses in long bones that drain into the central circulation. |
| Indications | Emergency vascular access if IV line cannot be established within 90 seconds in shock. |
| Most Common Site | Proximal Tibia (1-2 cm medial and distal to the tibial tuberosity). |
| Absolute CI | Fractured bone, previously penetrated bone (on the same site), or vascular interruption in the extremity. |
| Relative CI | Cellulitis/burns at site, Osteogenesis Imperfecta (fragility), or right-to-left intracardiac shunts (embolism risk). |
- Intraosseous (IO) access allows for the administration of any IV drug, resuscitation fluids, and even obtaining marrow for lab studies (electrolytes, ABG, cultures).
- Technique for IO Cannulation involves directing the needle caudad (10-15 degrees away from the growth plate) using a twisting motion until a "pop" or decrease in resistance is felt.
- Confirmation of IO needle placement is definitive if the needle stands firmly on its own, bone marrow is aspirated, and fluid flushes easily without subcutaneous swelling.
- Compartment Syndrome is a potential complication of IO access caused by the extravasation of fluids into the subcutaneous tissue.
- Fat emboli are a rare risk of IO access; practitioners are advised not to push aspirated marrow back into the cavity.
NEUROLOGIC EMERGENCIES AND TBI
| Topic | Key Facts |
|---|---|
| Dynamics | CPP = MAP - ICP. Mainstay is preserving nutrient supply (Oxygen/Glucose). |
| Compensatory Mech | 1. Displacing CSF to spinal canal. 2. Decreasing cerebral blood volume. 3. Expanding cranial volume (infant sutures). |
| Autoregulation | CBF remains constant despite BP changes until limits are exceeded. Low BP = Max Dilation; High BP = Max Constriction. |
| Secondary Injury | Targets of neuro-ICU. Includes edema, apoptosis, and ischemia from hypotension/hypoxia following the primary impact. |
| ICP Hallmark | Coma (GCS 3-8) is the hallmark of severe TBI. Peak swelling occurs at 48-72 hours. |
| Herniation Triad | (Cushing's) Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations (plus pupillary changes). |
TBI MANAGEMENT STRATEGIES
| Tier | Interventions |
|---|---|
| 1st Tier (Basic) | Head of bed elevation (midline/30 deg), controlled ventilation (target normal CO2), sedation/analgesia, euvolemia with Normal Saline. |
| Acute Herniation | Hyperventilation (urgent/temporary), Hypertonic Saline (3%) (5-10 mL/kg), or Mannitol (0.25-1.0 g/kg). |
| 2nd Tier (Refractory) | Decompressive craniectomy, Pentobarbital coma, Mild hypothermia (32-34C - controversial), extreme hyperventilation (PaCO2 25-30). |
| Supportive Care | BMB prophylaxis (Levetiracetam/Fosphenytoin), Avoid glucose >200 mg/dL, Avoid Hypotonic fluids (Target Na 145-155). |
- Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP) targets are age-dependent: 50 mmHg (2-6y), 55 mmHg (7-10y), and 65 mmHg (11-16y).
- Hyperthermia must be avoided in brain injury as it increases cellular metabolic demand and worsens tissue hypoxia.
- Hypercarbia (High CO2) causes cerebral vasodilation, increasing intracranial blood volume and subsequently increasing ICP.
- Modified Pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used for children <2 years old to account for non-verbal development scores.
- Cranial CT Scanning in patients <2 years old (PECARN) is indicated if GCS ≤14, there is altered mental status, or a palpable skull fracture.
- Cranial CT Scanning in patients ≥2 years old is indicated if GCS ≤14, there is altered mental status, or signs of a basilar skull fracture (Raccoon eyes/Battle sign).
- Hypertonic Saline (HTS) is often preferred over Mannitol for pediatric cerebral edema as it helps maintain volume while targeting high-normal sodium (145-155).
- Anticonvulsant prophylaxis (e.g., Levetiracetam) prevents early post-traumatic seizures (within 1 week) but does not prevent late-onset epilepsy.
BASIC LIFE SUPPORT (BLS) AND CPR
| Component | Pediatric (Child/Infant) Requirement |
|---|---|
| Sequence | C-A-B (Compressions, Airway, Breathing). |
| Compression Rate | 100 - 120 per minute. |
| Depth (Infant) | ~4 cm (1/3 AP diameter of chest). |
| Depth (Child) | ~5 cm (1/3 AP diameter of chest). |
| Ratio (1 Rescuer) | 30:2 (for all ages except neonates). |
| Ratio (2 Rescuers) | 15:2 for infants and children. |
| Pulse Check Site | Infants: Brachial; Children: Carotid or Femoral. (Check for 5-10 seconds). |
| AED Pads | Adult pads for ≥8 years; Pediatric pads preferred for <8 years (but use adult if unavailable). |
- Chest Recoil must be complete between compressions to allow for atrial refilling (diastole).
- Rescue Breaths should be delivered over 1 second, ensuring visible chest rise while avoiding excessive ventilation (which increases intrathoracic pressure).
- Jaw-Thrust Maneuver is the mandatory technique for opening the airway in any patient with suspected cervical spine injury.
- Two Thumb-Encircling Hands Technique is the preferred compression method for infants when there are two rescuers.
- Gasping is not normal breathing; it is a sign of cardiac arrest and acidosis requiring immediate CPR.
- AED Analysis: If the rhythm is shockable, clear the patient, deliver the shock, and immediately resume CPR starting with compressions (do not check pulse).
- Unwitnessed Collapse in children requires the lone rescuer to perform 2 minutes (5 cycles) of CPR before leaving to activate EMS or get an AED.
- Witnessed Collapse in children allows the lone rescuer to leave immediately to activate EMS/get an AED because the cause is likely a sudden primary cardiac arrhythmia.
DIFFERENTIATION AND COMPARISON FOR EXAMS
- Etomidate vs. Ketamine: Both are used for hemodynamically unstable patients, but Etomidate is avoided in sepsis (adrenal suppression) while Ketamine is preferred for asthma (bronchodilatory).
- Succinylcholine vs. Rocuronium: Succinylcholine has a faster/shorter onset but dangerous side effects in hyperkalemic or burned patients; Rocuronium is the safer, non-depolarizing alternative.
- Head Tilt-Chin Lift vs. Jaw Thrust: Head tilt is standard, but Jaw Thrust must be used if cervical spine injury is suspected to prevent spinal cord damage.
- Primary vs. Secondary Brain Injury: Primary injury is structural/irreversible damage occurring at impact; Secondary injury is physiological (edema, ischemia) and is the target of medical management.
- 1-Rescuer vs. 2-Rescuer Peds CPR: The compression-to-breath ratio changes from 30:2 (1-rescuer) to 15:2 (2-rescuer) to prioritize oxygenation in children.
- Infant vs. Child Pulse Checks: Check the brachial artery in infants (under 1 year) and the carotid/femoral artery in children (>1 year).
- Mannitol vs. Hypertonic Saline (HTS): HTS acts as a volume expander and is preferred in hypotension; Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that may cause hypovolemia.
- SIADH vs. Cerebral Salt Wasting (CSW): Both cause hyponatremia after brain injury; SIADH involves fluid retention (euvolemic/hypervolemic), while CSW involves massive sodium loss in urine (hypovolemic).
- Decorticate vs. Decerebrate Posturing: Both indicate brain injury; Decorticate (flexion) suggests damage above the brainstem, while Decerebrate (extension) indicates a more severe brainstem injury/herniation.
- Straight vs. Curved Blades: Straight blades (Miller) physically lift the epiglottis (better for peds); Curved blades (Macintosh) are placed in the vallecula to indirectly lift the epiglottis (Standard for adults).
- Witnessed vs. Unwitnessed Peds Arrest: Witnessed = Get help/AED first. Unwitnessed = Do 2 minutes of CPR first.
- Normal Ventilation vs. Hyperventilation in TBI: Target normal PaCO2 (35-45) for maintenance; target low PaCO2 (25-30) ONLY as a temporary rescue for acute herniation.
- Hypoxia vs. Hyperoxia in TBI: Both are harmful; hypoxia starves brain tissue, while hyperoxia produces oxygen radicals that facilitate secondary brain injury.
QA
| Count | Question | Answer |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | What is the most important part of Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)? | Preparation of materials |
| 2 | What are the five (5) Indications for Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)? | 1) Maintain airway/prevent aspiration 2) Failure of oxygenation 3) Failure of CO2 control 4) Sedation/paralysis for procedure 5) Anticipated deterioration |
| 3 | What is the Absolute Contraindication for Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)? | Known complete airway obstruction |
| 4 | What is the required management for a complete airway obstruction in Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)? | Emergency cricothyroidotomy/tracheostomy |
| 5 | What are the five (5) Difficult Airway Predictors? | 1) Limited mouth opening 2) Limited neck mobility 3) Micrognathia (small jaw) 4) Short neck 5) History of difficult intubation |
| 6 | What is the goal saturation for Preoxygenation in RSI? | O2 saturation >95% |
| 7 | How long should Preoxygenation last for a spontaneous breathing patient? | 3 minutes |
| 8 | What anatomical position is the gold standard for Airway Management? | Sniffing position |
| 9 | How are Infants and Neonates positioned for RSI to prevent flexion? | Cloth behind shoulders |
| 10 | Why is a shoulder roll used in Infant Intubation? | Large occiput |
| 11 | What is the purpose of Atropine pretreatment in RSI? | Blunt vagal reflex (bradycardia) |
| 12 | What are the two (2) clinical effects of Atropine in airway management? | 1) Prevents bradycardia 2) Reduces secretions |
| 13 | Atropine is recommended for which two (2) pediatric groups? | 1) Children ≤1 year 2) Children <5 years with succinylcholine |
| 14 | What is the purpose of Lidocaine pretreatment in RSI? | Minimize ICP increases |
| 15 | Lidocaine prevents the patient from straining during intubation to avoid what risk? | Herniation (from high ICP) |
| 16 | Why is Etomidate used for hemodynamic instability? | Safe and neuroprotective |
| 17 | What is the contraindication for routine Etomidate use? | Septic shock |
| 18 | Why is Etomidate avoided in septic shock? | Transient adrenal suppression |
| 19 | What is the Drug of Choice for RSI Induction in asthma or bronchospasm? | Ketamine |
| 20 | Why is Ketamine preferred over midazolam in shock? | Hemodynamically stable |
| 21 | What is a notable side effect of Ketamine in the airway? | Increased oral secretions |
| 22 | What is the primary hemodynamic side effect of Propofol? | Hypotension |
| 23 | What are two (2) indications for Propofol in sedation? | 1) Status epilepticus 2) Stable patients with neuro problems |
| 24 | What is the Benzodiazepine of choice for induction in RSI? | Midazolam |
| 25 | How long does the onset of Midazolam take? | 2-3 minutes |
| 26 | What is the most common Analgesic used during RSI? | Fentanyl |
| 27 | What are the two (2) side effects of rapid Fentanyl administration? | 1) Respiratory depression 2) Chest wall rigidity |
| 28 | What is the Drug of Choice for muscle relaxation to ensure Rapid Paralysis? | Rocuronium |
| 29 | What must be done immediately after breathing stops following Rocuronium? | Insert the tube |
| 30 | What is the benefit of using Succinylcholine as a paralytic? | Rapid onset |
| 31 | What are the four (4) Contraindications for Succinylcholine? | 1) Hyperkalemia 2) Burns/Crush (>48h) 3) Malignant hyperthermia 4) Chronic muscle disease |
| 32 | What muscle diseases specifically contraindicate Succinylcholine? | Duchenne and Becker |
| 33 | What does the Sellick Maneuver involve? | Cricoid cartilage pressure |
| 34 | When is the Sellick Maneuver indicated? | Difficult visualization |
| 35 | Which blade is typically used in Pediatric Intubation for the floppy epiglottis? | Straight (Miller) |
| 36 | Which blade is standard for Adult Intubation? | Curved (Macintosh) |
| 37 | Where is the Macintosh blade placed? | Vallecula |
| 38 | What are the four (4) methods to confirm ETT Placement? | 1) Auscultation 2) Chest rise 3) Vital signs 4) Chest X-ray |
| 39 | What does Intraosseous (IO) Cannulation access for drainage into central circulation? | Medullary sinuses |
| 40 | What is the time limit for failed IV access in shock before initiating IO Access? | 90 seconds |
| 41 | What is the most common site for IO Cannulation? | Proximal Tibia |
| 42 | What is the landmark for Proximal Tibia IO access? | 1-2 cm medial/distal to tibial tuberosity |
| 43 | What are the three (3) Absolute Contraindications for IO Access? | 1) Fractured bone 2) Previous penetration 3) Vascular interruption |
| 44 | What are the three (3) Relative Contraindications for IO Access? | 1) Cellulitis/Burns 2) Osteogenesis Imperfecta 3) R-to-L shunts |
| 45 | What can be obtained from IO access besides drug/fluid administration? | Bone marrow (for labs) |
| 46 | Which direction is the needle angled during IO Cannulation? | Caudad (10-15 degrees) |
| 47 | What sensation indicates entering the cavity during IO insertion? | "Pop" / decreased resistance |
| 48 | What are the three (3) signs of definitive IO Needle Placement? | 1) Needle stands firmly 2) Marrow aspirated 3) Easy flush |
| 49 | What complication arises from fluid extravasation during IO Access? | Compartment Syndrome |
| 50 | What is a rare risk of IO Access involving marrow? | Fat emboli |
| 51 | What is the formula for Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)? | CPP = MAP - ICP |
| 52 | What is the mainstay of TBI Treatment? | Preserve Oxygen/Glucose |
| 53 | What are the three (3) ICP Compensatory Mechanisms? | 1) Displace CSF 2) Decrease blood volume 3) Expand sutures (infants) |
| 54 | In Cerebral Autoregulation, how does low blood pressure affect vessels? | Max Dilation |
| 55 | What four (4) factors characterize Secondary Brain Injury? | Edema, Apoptosis, Ischemia, Hypotension/Hypoxia |
| 56 | What is the hallmark Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) for severe TBI? | 3-8 (Coma) |
| 57 | When does peak Cerebral Swelling occur after injury? | 48-72 hours |
| 58 | What are the three (3) components of the Cushing Herniation Triad? | 1) Hypertension 2) Bradycardia 3) Irregular respirations |
| 59 | What is the target PaCO2 for Tier 1 TBI management? | Normal (35-45 mmHg) |
| 60 | What fluid is used to maintain Euvolemia in TBI? | Normal Saline |
| 61 | What are the three (3) interventions for Acute Herniation? | 1) Hyperventilation 2) Hypertonic Saline 3) Mannitol |
| 62 | What is the dose for 3% Hypertonic Saline in TBI? | 5-10 mL/kg |
| 63 | What are the four (4) Tier 2 interventions for Refractory ICP? | 1) Decompressive craniectomy 2) Pentobarbital coma 3) Mild hypothermia 4) Extreme hyperventilation |
| 64 | What is the Anticonvulsant Prophylaxis used in TBI? | Levetiracetam or Fosphenytoin |
| 65 | What is the target Serum Sodium in TBI? | 145-155 mEq/L |
| 66 | What is the CPP Target for children aged 2-6 years? | 50 mmHg |
| 67 | What is the CPP Target for children aged 11-16 years? | 65 mmHg |
| 68 | Why must Hyperthermia be avoided in brain injury? | Increases metabolic demand |
| 69 | What physiological effect does Hypercarbia have on the brain? | Cerebral vasodilation |
| 70 | Which GCS Scale is used for children under 2 years old? | Modified Pediatric GCS |
| 71 | What are the three (3) PECARN CT indications for children <2 years? | 1) GCS ≤14 2) Altered MS 3) Palpable fracture |
| 72 | What are two (2) physical signs of Basilar Skull Fracture? | Raccoon eyes/Battle sign |
| 73 | Why is Hypertonic Saline (HTS) often preferred over Mannitol? | Volume expansion |
| 74 | What is the BLS Sequence for pediatrics? | C-A-B |
| 75 | What is the Compression Rate for pediatric CPR? | 100-120 per minute |
| 76 | What is the Compression Depth for an infant? | ~4 cm (1/3 AP) |
| 77 | What is the Compression Depth for a child? | ~5 cm (1/3 AP) |
| 78 | What is the 1-Rescuer CPR ratio for children/infants? | 30:2 |
| 79 | What is the 2-Rescuer CPR ratio for children/infants? | 15:2 |
| 80 | Where is the Pulse Check conducted in infants? | Brachial artery |
| 81 | Where is the Pulse Check conducted in children? | Carotid or Femoral |
| 82 | How long should a Pulse Check take? | 5-10 seconds |
| 83 | When should Adult AED pads be used in children? | Age ≥8 years |
| 84 | Why is complete Chest Recoil required? | Allow atrial refilling |
| 85 | How long should Rescue Breaths be delivered? | Over 1 second |
| 86 | What technique is used for Cervical Spine injury airway management? | Jaw-Thrust |
| 87 | What is the preferred infant 2-Rescuer Compression Technique? | Two thumb-encircling hands |
| 88 | Is Gasping considered normal breathing? | No (sign of arrest) |
| 89 | What is the first action immediately after an AED Shock? | Resume CPR (compressions) |
| 90 | What is the Unwitnessed Collapse protocol for children? | 2 mins CPR first |
| 91 | What is the Witnessed Collapse protocol for children? | Activate EMS/Get AED first |
| 92 | Compare Etomidate vs Ketamine in terms of use? | Etomidate (stability) vs Ketamine (asthma) |
| 93 | Contrast Succinylcholine vs Rocuronium safety? | Succinylcholine (hyperkalemia risk) vs Rocuronium (safer) |
| 94 | Contrast Head Tilt vs Jaw Thrust? | Head tilt (Standard) vs Jaw thrust (C-spine) |
| 95 | Contrast Primary vs Secondary Brain Injury? | Primary (Impact) vs Secondary (Edema/Management target) |
| 96 | Contrast 1-Rescuer vs 2-Rescuer pediatric CPR ratios? | 30:2 vs 15:2 |
| 97 | Contrast Mannitol vs Hypertonic Saline hemodynamics? | Mannitol (diuretic) vs HTS (volume expander) |
| 98 | Contrast SIADH vs Cerebral Salt Wasting? | SIADH (euvolemic) vs CSW (hypovolemic) |
| 99 | Contrast Decorticate vs Decerebrate Posturing? | Decorticate (Flexion) vs Decerebrate (Extension/Severe) |
| 100 | Contrast Normal Ventilation vs Hyperventilation targets in TBI? | Normal (Maintenance) vs Low CO2 (Acute Herniation) |